Ham exam fleet report

hamexam_evals.db · 250 runs (250 succeeded) · 61 exams · 602 distinct questions of 602 in pool · 7 configurations · generated 2026-08-26 04:46

Configurations

Exam score is out of 50; pass is 37. p̂ is mean per-question accuracy over every (run, question) score. The three SEs are for p̂: naive (Eq. 1, all scores independent), clustered by question id (Eq. 4 — replicas of the same question share a cluster), and clustered by E-group (same topic).

claude-opus-4-8

47.6 ± 0.5 sd
5 runs · 1 exams · 50 questions · pass 5/5 · range 47–48
p̂95.2%
SE naive1.4%
SE clustered by question2.9% (2.12× naive)
SE clustered by E-group2.9%
95% CI (by question)89.6% – 100.0%

claude-sonnet-4-6

48.3 ± 1.0 sd
55 runs · 16 exams · 602 questions · pass 55/55 · range 45–50
p̂96.6%
SE naive0.3%
SE clustered by question0.7% (2.10× naive)
SE clustered by E-group0.9%
95% CI (by question)95.2% – 98.0%

claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high

44.2 ± 14.8 sd
10 runs · 1 exams · 50 questions · pass 9/10 · range 2–49
p̂88.4%
SE naive1.4%
SE clustered by question1.6% (1.12× naive)
SE clustered by E-group1.6%
95% CI (by question)85.2% – 91.6%

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001

42.7 ± 1.3 sd
45 runs · 15 exams · 602 questions · pass 45/45 · range 40–46
p̂85.5%
SE naive0.7%
SE clustered by question1.5% (1.98× naive)
SE clustered by E-group1.7%
95% CI (by question)82.6% – 88.4%

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34

42.6 ± 1.4 sd
45 runs · 15 exams · 591 questions · pass 45/45 · range 39–46
p̂85.2%
SE naive0.7%
SE clustered by question2.2% (2.94× naive)
SE clustered by E-group2.3%
95% CI (by question)80.9% – 89.6%

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42

42.6 ± 1.5 sd
45 runs · 15 exams · 591 questions · pass 45/45 · range 40–46
p̂85.1%
SE naive0.8%
SE clustered by question2.2% (2.94× naive)
SE clustered by E-group2.4%
95% CI (by question)80.8% – 89.4%

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9

43.0 ± 1.4 sd
45 runs · 15 exams · 592 questions · pass 45/45 · range 41–46
p̂86.0%
SE naive0.7%
SE clustered by question1.5% (2.02× naive)
SE clustered by E-group1.7%
95% CI (by question)83.2% – 88.9%

Paired comparisons

Sec. 3.3: for questions both configurations answered, the per-question accuracy difference (A − B, means over replicas), its SE across questions, and the same clustered by E-group. A CI that excludes 0 separates the two.

ABshared qA p̂B p̂diffSE95% CISE (E-group)95% CI (E-group)
claude-opus-4-8claude-sonnet-4-65095.2%98.4%-3.2%2.2%-7.4% – 1.1%2.1%-7.4% – 1.0%
claude-opus-4-8claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high5095.2%88.4%6.8%2.2%2.5% – 11.1%2.2%2.6% – 11.0%
claude-opus-4-8claude-haiku-4-5-202510015095.2%86.3%8.9%4.9%-0.8% – 18.5%4.9%-0.7% – 18.4%
claude-opus-4-8claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first344995.1%88.1%7.0%4.6%-2.1% – 16.1%4.6%-2.0% – 16.0%
claude-opus-4-8claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first424995.1%88.1%7.0%4.7%-2.2% – 16.2%4.6%-2.1% – 16.1%
claude-opus-4-8claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first95095.2%89.9%5.3%4.3%-3.2% – 13.8%4.3%-3.1% – 13.7%
claude-sonnet-4-6claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high5098.4%88.4%10.0%0.3%9.4% – 10.5%0.3%9.4% – 10.5%
claude-sonnet-4-6claude-haiku-4-5-2025100160296.1%86.2%9.9%1.3%7.4% – 12.4%1.4%7.2% – 12.5%
claude-sonnet-4-6claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first3459196.2%87.3%8.9%1.2%6.5% – 11.3%1.2%6.5% – 11.3%
claude-sonnet-4-6claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first4259196.2%87.4%8.8%1.2%6.4% – 11.2%1.3%6.2% – 11.4%
claude-sonnet-4-6claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first959296.1%86.8%9.3%1.2%6.8% – 11.7%1.3%6.8% – 11.8%
claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:highclaude-haiku-4-5-202510015088.4%86.3%2.1%5.0%-7.7% – 11.9%5.0%-7.6% – 11.8%
claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:highclaude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first344988.4%88.1%0.3%4.8%-9.1% – 9.6%4.7%-9.0% – 9.5%
claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:highclaude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first424988.4%88.1%0.3%4.8%-9.1% – 9.7%4.7%-9.0% – 9.6%
claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:highclaude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first95088.4%89.9%-1.5%4.4%-10.2% – 7.2%4.4%-10.1% – 7.1%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first3459186.9%87.3%-0.3%0.4%-1.2% – 0.5%0.4%-1.1% – 0.4%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first4259186.2%87.4%-1.2%0.5%-2.3% – -0.2%0.5%-2.2% – -0.2%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first959286.4%86.8%-0.4%0.4%-1.3% – 0.4%0.4%-1.2% – 0.4%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first4258087.3%88.0%-0.7%0.4%-1.5% – 0.1%0.4%-1.5% – 0.2%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first958187.4%87.5%-0.0%0.5%-0.9% – 0.9%0.5%-0.9% – 0.9%
claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first958187.5%87.0%0.5%0.5%-0.5% – 1.4%0.5%-0.5% – 1.5%

Pool map

Every question in the pool, one row per E-group, colored by observed accuracy for the configuration. Hover a cell for id, accuracy, sample count, and question text. Grey cells were never sampled. Rows are the paper's clusters made visible.

accuracy 0 <50% 50–75% 75–95% ≥95% unsampled

claude-opus-4-8

E0A E0A id 590: not sampled — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: not sampled — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: not sampled — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: not sampled — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: not sampled — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: not sampled — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: not sampled — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: not sampled — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: not sampled — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 5 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: not sampled — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: not sampled — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: not sampled — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: not sampled — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: not sampled — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: not sampled — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: not sampled — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: not sampled — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: not sampled — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: not sampled — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 100.0% of 5 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: not sampled — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: not sampled — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: not sampled — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: not sampled — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: not sampled — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: not sampled — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 5 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: not sampled — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: not sampled — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: not sampled — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: not sampled — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: not sampled — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: not sampled — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: not sampled — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: not sampled — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: not sampled — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: not sampled — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: not sampled — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: not sampled — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: not sampled — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: not sampled — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: not sampled — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: not sampled — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: not sampled — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: not sampled — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: not sampled — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: not sampled — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: not sampled — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: not sampled — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: not sampled — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: not sampled — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: not sampled — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: not sampled — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 100.0% of 5 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: not sampled — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: not sampled — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: not sampled — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 5 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: not sampled — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: not sampled — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: not sampled — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: not sampled — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: not sampled — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: not sampled — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: not sampled — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: not sampled — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: not sampled — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: not sampled — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: not sampled — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: not sampled — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: not sampled — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 100.0% of 5 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: not sampled — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: not sampled — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: not sampled — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: not sampled — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: not sampled — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: not sampled — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: not sampled — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: not sampled — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 0.0% of 5 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: not sampled — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: not sampled — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: not sampled — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: not sampled — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: not sampled — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: not sampled — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: not sampled — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: not sampled — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: not sampled — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: not sampled — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: not sampled — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: not sampled — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: not sampled — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: not sampled — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: not sampled — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: not sampled — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: not sampled — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: not sampled — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: not sampled — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: not sampled — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: not sampled — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: not sampled — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: not sampled — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: not sampled — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: not sampled — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: not sampled — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: not sampled — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: not sampled — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: not sampled — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: not sampled — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: not sampled — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: not sampled — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: not sampled — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: not sampled — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: not sampled — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: not sampled — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 5 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: not sampled — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: not sampled — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: not sampled — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: not sampled — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: not sampled — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: not sampled — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: not sampled — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: not sampled — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: not sampled — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: not sampled — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: not sampled — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: not sampled — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: not sampled — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: not sampled — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: not sampled — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: not sampled — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: not sampled — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: not sampled — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: not sampled — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: not sampled — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: not sampled — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: not sampled — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 5 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: not sampled — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: not sampled — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: not sampled — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: not sampled — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: not sampled — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: not sampled — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: not sampled — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: not sampled — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: not sampled — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: not sampled — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: not sampled — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: not sampled — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: not sampled — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: not sampled — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: not sampled — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: not sampled — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: not sampled — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 5 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: not sampled — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: not sampled — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: not sampled — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: not sampled — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: not sampled — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 5 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: not sampled — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: not sampled — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: not sampled — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: not sampled — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: not sampled — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: not sampled — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: not sampled — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: not sampled — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: not sampled — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: not sampled — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: not sampled — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: not sampled — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: not sampled — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: not sampled — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: not sampled — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: not sampled — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: not sampled — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: not sampled — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: not sampled — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 100.0% of 5 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: not sampled — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: not sampled — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: not sampled — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: not sampled — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: not sampled — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: not sampled — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: not sampled — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: not sampled — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: not sampled — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: not sampled — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: not sampled — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: not sampled — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: not sampled — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: not sampled — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 5 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: not sampled — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: not sampled — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: not sampled — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: not sampled — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: not sampled — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: not sampled — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: not sampled — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: not sampled — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: not sampled — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: not sampled — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: not sampled — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: not sampled — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: not sampled — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: not sampled — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: not sampled — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: not sampled — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 5 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: not sampled — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: not sampled — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: not sampled — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: not sampled — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: not sampled — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 0.0% of 5 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: not sampled — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: not sampled — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: not sampled — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: not sampled — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: not sampled — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: not sampled — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: not sampled — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: not sampled — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: not sampled — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: not sampled — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: not sampled — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: not sampled — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: not sampled — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: not sampled — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: not sampled — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: not sampled — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: not sampled — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: not sampled — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: not sampled — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: not sampled — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 5 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: not sampled — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: not sampled — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: not sampled — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: not sampled — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: not sampled — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: not sampled — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: not sampled — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: not sampled — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 5 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: not sampled — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: not sampled — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: not sampled — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: not sampled — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: not sampled — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: not sampled — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 5 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: not sampled — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: not sampled — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: not sampled — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: not sampled — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: not sampled — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: not sampled — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: not sampled — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 5 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: not sampled — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: not sampled — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: not sampled — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: not sampled — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: not sampled — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: not sampled — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: not sampled — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: not sampled — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: not sampled — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: not sampled — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: not sampled — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: not sampled — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: not sampled — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: not sampled — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: not sampled — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: not sampled — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: not sampled — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 5 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: not sampled — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: not sampled — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: not sampled — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: not sampled — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: not sampled — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: not sampled — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: not sampled — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: not sampled — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: not sampled — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 5 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: not sampled — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: not sampled — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: not sampled — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: not sampled — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: not sampled — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 5 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: not sampled — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: not sampled — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: not sampled — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: not sampled — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: not sampled — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: not sampled — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: not sampled — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: not sampled — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: not sampled — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: not sampled — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 100.0% of 5 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: not sampled — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: not sampled — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: not sampled — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: not sampled — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: not sampled — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: not sampled — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: not sampled — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 5 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: not sampled — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: not sampled — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: not sampled — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: not sampled — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: not sampled — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: not sampled — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: not sampled — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: not sampled — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: not sampled — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: not sampled — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: not sampled — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: not sampled — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: not sampled — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: not sampled — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 5 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: not sampled — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: not sampled — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: not sampled — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: not sampled — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: not sampled — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: not sampled — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: not sampled — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: not sampled — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: not sampled — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: not sampled — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: not sampled — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: not sampled — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 5 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: not sampled — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: not sampled — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: not sampled — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: not sampled — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: not sampled — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: not sampled — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: not sampled — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: not sampled — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: not sampled — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: not sampled — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: not sampled — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: not sampled — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: not sampled — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: not sampled — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 5 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: not sampled — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: not sampled — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: not sampled — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: not sampled — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: not sampled — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: not sampled — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: not sampled — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 5 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: not sampled — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: not sampled — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: not sampled — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: not sampled — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: not sampled — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: not sampled — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: not sampled — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: not sampled — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: not sampled — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: not sampled — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: not sampled — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: not sampled — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: not sampled — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: not sampled — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: not sampled — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: not sampled — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 5 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: not sampled — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: not sampled — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: not sampled — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: not sampled — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: not sampled — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: not sampled — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: not sampled — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: not sampled — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: not sampled — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: not sampled — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: not sampled — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: not sampled — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: not sampled — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: not sampled — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 5 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: not sampled — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: not sampled — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: not sampled — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: not sampled — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: not sampled — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: not sampled — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: not sampled — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: not sampled — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: not sampled — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: not sampled — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: not sampled — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: not sampled — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: not sampled — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: not sampled — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: not sampled — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: not sampled — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: not sampled — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: not sampled — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: not sampled — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: not sampled — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: not sampled — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: not sampled — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 5 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: not sampled — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: not sampled — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: not sampled — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: not sampled — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: not sampled — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: not sampled — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: not sampled — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: not sampled — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: not sampled — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: not sampled — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: not sampled — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 5 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: not sampled — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: not sampled — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: not sampled — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: not sampled — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: not sampled — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: not sampled — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: not sampled — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: not sampled — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: not sampled — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: not sampled — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: not sampled — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: not sampled — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: not sampled — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: not sampled — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: not sampled — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: not sampled — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: not sampled — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: not sampled — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: not sampled — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: not sampled — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: not sampled — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: not sampled — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 5 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: not sampled — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: not sampled — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: not sampled — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: not sampled — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: not sampled — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: not sampled — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: not sampled — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: not sampled — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: not sampled — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: not sampled — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: not sampled — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 5 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: not sampled — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: not sampled — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: not sampled — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: not sampled — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: not sampled — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: not sampled — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: not sampled — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: not sampled — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: not sampled — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: not sampled — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: not sampled — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: not sampled — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: not sampled — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 5 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: not sampled — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: not sampled — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: not sampled — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: not sampled — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: not sampled — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 100.0% of 5 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: not sampled — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: not sampled — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: not sampled — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: not sampled — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: not sampled — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: not sampled — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: not sampled — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: not sampled — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: not sampled — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: not sampled — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: not sampled — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: not sampled — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: not sampled — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 5 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: not sampled — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: not sampled — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: not sampled — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: not sampled — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: not sampled — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: not sampled — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: not sampled — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: not sampled — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: not sampled — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: not sampled — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: not sampled — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: not sampled — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: not sampled — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 60.0% of 5 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: not sampled — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: not sampled — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: not sampled — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: not sampled — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: not sampled — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: not sampled — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: not sampled — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 5 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: not sampled — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: not sampled — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: not sampled — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: not sampled — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 100.0% of 5 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: not sampled — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: not sampled — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: not sampled — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: not sampled — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: not sampled — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: not sampled — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: not sampled — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: not sampled — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: not sampled — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: not sampled — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: not sampled — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: not sampled — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 5 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: not sampled — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: not sampled — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: not sampled — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: not sampled — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: not sampled — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: not sampled — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: not sampled — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 5 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: not sampled — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: not sampled — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: not sampled — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: not sampled — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: not sampled — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: not sampled — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 5 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: not sampled — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: not sampled — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: not sampled — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: not sampled — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: not sampled — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: not sampled — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: not sampled — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: not sampled — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: not sampled — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

claude-sonnet-4-6

E0A E0A id 590: 100.0% of 3 — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: 100.0% of 6 — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: 100.0% of 6 — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: 100.0% of 3 — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: 100.0% of 3 — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: 100.0% of 3 — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: 100.0% of 3 — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: 33.3% of 3 — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 16 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: 100.0% of 3 — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: 100.0% of 3 — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: 100.0% of 3 — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: 66.7% of 3 — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: 66.7% of 3 — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: 100.0% of 3 — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: 100.0% of 3 — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: 100.0% of 6 — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: 100.0% of 3 — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 100.0% of 13 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: 100.0% of 6 — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: 100.0% of 6 — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: 100.0% of 3 — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: 100.0% of 3 — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 13 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: 100.0% of 3 — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: 100.0% of 3 — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: 83.3% of 6 — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: 100.0% of 6 — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: 100.0% of 3 — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: 100.0% of 3 — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: 0.0% of 3 — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: 100.0% of 3 — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: 100.0% of 6 — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: 100.0% of 6 — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 100.0% of 13 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: 0.0% of 6 — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: 100.0% of 3 — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: 0.0% of 3 — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: 0.0% of 3 — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: 100.0% of 6 — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 100.0% of 13 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: 100.0% of 3 — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 13 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: 100.0% of 3 — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: 100.0% of 3 — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: 100.0% of 6 — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: 100.0% of 3 — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: 100.0% of 6 — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: 66.7% of 6 — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: 66.7% of 3 — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: 100.0% of 6 — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: 100.0% of 3 — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: 100.0% of 3 — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: 100.0% of 3 — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 100.0% of 13 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: 100.0% of 3 — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: 0.0% of 3 — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: 100.0% of 3 — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 100.0% of 13 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: 100.0% of 3 — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: 100.0% of 3 — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: 100.0% of 6 — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: 100.0% of 3 — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: 100.0% of 3 — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: 100.0% of 3 — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: 100.0% of 6 — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: 100.0% of 3 — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: 100.0% of 3 — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: 83.3% of 6 — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 13 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: 100.0% of 3 — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: 100.0% of 3 — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: 100.0% of 3 — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: 100.0% of 6 — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: 100.0% of 3 — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: 100.0% of 3 — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: 100.0% of 6 — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 100.0% of 13 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: 100.0% of 3 — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: 100.0% of 6 — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: 100.0% of 6 — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: 100.0% of 3 — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: 100.0% of 3 — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: 100.0% of 3 — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: 100.0% of 3 — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: 100.0% of 3 — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 13 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: 100.0% of 6 — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: 100.0% of 6 — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: 100.0% of 3 — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: 100.0% of 6 — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: 100.0% of 3 — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 13 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: 50.0% of 6 — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: 100.0% of 3 — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: 100.0% of 3 — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: 100.0% of 3 — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: 100.0% of 3 — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: 100.0% of 3 — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: 100.0% of 3 — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 13 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: 100.0% of 3 — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: 100.0% of 3 — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: 100.0% of 3 — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: 100.0% of 3 — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: 66.7% of 3 — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: 100.0% of 3 — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: 100.0% of 6 — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: 100.0% of 3 — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: 100.0% of 6 — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: 100.0% of 3 — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: 100.0% of 3 — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: 100.0% of 3 — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: 100.0% of 3 — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 13 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: 100.0% of 3 — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: 100.0% of 3 — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: 100.0% of 3 — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 13 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: 100.0% of 3 — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: 100.0% of 6 — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: 100.0% of 6 — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: 0.0% of 3 — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: 100.0% of 3 — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: 100.0% of 3 — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: 100.0% of 6 — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 100.0% of 13 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: 100.0% of 3 — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: 100.0% of 3 — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: 100.0% of 6 — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: 100.0% of 3 — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: 100.0% of 3 — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: 100.0% of 3 — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 16 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: 100.0% of 6 — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: 100.0% of 3 — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: 100.0% of 3 — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: 100.0% of 3 — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 13 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: 0.0% of 3 — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: 100.0% of 3 — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: 100.0% of 3 — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: 100.0% of 3 — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: 100.0% of 3 — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: 0.0% of 3 — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: 100.0% of 3 — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 16 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: 100.0% of 3 — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: 100.0% of 3 — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: 100.0% of 3 — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: 100.0% of 3 — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: 100.0% of 3 — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 18.8% of 16 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: 100.0% of 3 — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: 100.0% of 3 — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: 100.0% of 3 — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: 100.0% of 3 — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: 100.0% of 3 — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: 100.0% of 3 — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: 100.0% of 3 — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: 100.0% of 3 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: 100.0% of 6 — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: 100.0% of 3 — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: 100.0% of 6 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 13 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: 100.0% of 6 — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: 100.0% of 3 — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: 100.0% of 3 — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: 100.0% of 6 — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: 100.0% of 3 — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: 100.0% of 6 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 13 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: 100.0% of 6 — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: 100.0% of 3 — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: 100.0% of 3 — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 13 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: 100.0% of 3 — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: 100.0% of 3 — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: 100.0% of 3 — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: 100.0% of 3 — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: 100.0% of 6 — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 13 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: 100.0% of 3 — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: 100.0% of 3 — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: 100.0% of 6 — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: 33.3% of 3 — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: 0.0% of 3 — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: 0.0% of 3 — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: 100.0% of 3 — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: 100.0% of 6 — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: 100.0% of 6 — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: 100.0% of 3 — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: 100.0% of 3 — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: 100.0% of 3 — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: 100.0% of 3 — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 13 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: 100.0% of 6 — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: 100.0% of 3 — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: 100.0% of 6 — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: 100.0% of 3 — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 13 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: 100.0% of 6 — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: 33.3% of 6 — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 13 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: 100.0% of 3 — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: 100.0% of 3 — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: 100.0% of 3 — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: 100.0% of 6 — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: 100.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: 100.0% of 3 — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: 100.0% of 6 — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: 100.0% of 3 — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 100.0% of 13 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: 100.0% of 3 — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: 66.7% of 3 — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: 100.0% of 3 — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: 100.0% of 3 — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: 100.0% of 3 — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 13 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: 100.0% of 3 — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: 100.0% of 6 — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: 100.0% of 3 — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: 100.0% of 6 — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: 100.0% of 3 — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: 100.0% of 3 — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: 100.0% of 6 — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: 100.0% of 3 — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 13 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: 100.0% of 6 — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: 100.0% of 6 — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: 100.0% of 6 — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: 100.0% of 3 — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: 100.0% of 3 — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: 100.0% of 3 — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 16 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: 100.0% of 3 — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: 100.0% of 6 — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: 100.0% of 3 — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: 100.0% of 3 — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: 100.0% of 6 — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: 100.0% of 3 — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: 100.0% of 3 — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: 100.0% of 6 — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: 100.0% of 3 — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: 100.0% of 3 — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 13 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: 100.0% of 3 — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: 100.0% of 6 — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: 100.0% of 3 — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: 100.0% of 3 — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 16 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: 100.0% of 3 — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: 100.0% of 3 — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: 100.0% of 3 — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: 100.0% of 3 — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: 100.0% of 3 — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: 100.0% of 3 — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: 100.0% of 3 — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 13 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 13 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: 100.0% of 6 — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: 100.0% of 3 — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: 100.0% of 3 — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: 100.0% of 6 — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: 100.0% of 6 — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: 100.0% of 3 — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: 100.0% of 3 — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 13 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: 100.0% of 3 — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: 100.0% of 3 — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: 100.0% of 6 — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: 100.0% of 3 — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: 100.0% of 3 — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: 100.0% of 3 — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: 100.0% of 3 — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: 100.0% of 6 — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: 100.0% of 3 — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: 100.0% of 6 — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: 100.0% of 3 — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: 100.0% of 6 — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 13 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: 100.0% of 3 — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: 100.0% of 3 — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: 100.0% of 3 — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: 100.0% of 3 — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: 100.0% of 3 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: 100.0% of 6 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: 100.0% of 3 — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: 100.0% of 6 — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: 100.0% of 3 — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 13 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: 100.0% of 6 — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: 100.0% of 3 — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: 100.0% of 3 — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: 100.0% of 6 — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: 100.0% of 3 — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: 100.0% of 6 — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 16 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: 100.0% of 3 — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: 100.0% of 6 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: 100.0% of 3 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: 100.0% of 6 — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: 100.0% of 3 — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: 100.0% of 6 — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: 100.0% of 3 — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 16 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: 100.0% of 3 — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: 100.0% of 3 — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: 100.0% of 3 — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: 100.0% of 3 — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: 100.0% of 3 — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: 100.0% of 3 — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 13 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: 100.0% of 3 — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: 100.0% of 3 — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: 100.0% of 3 — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: 100.0% of 3 — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: 100.0% of 3 — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: 100.0% of 6 — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: 100.0% of 3 — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: 100.0% of 3 — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: 100.0% of 6 — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: 100.0% of 6 — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 13 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: 100.0% of 3 — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: 100.0% of 3 — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: 100.0% of 6 — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 100.0% of 13 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: 100.0% of 3 — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: 100.0% of 6 — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: 100.0% of 6 — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: 100.0% of 3 — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: 0.0% of 3 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: 83.3% of 6 — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: 66.7% of 6 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: 100.0% of 6 — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: 66.7% of 3 — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 13 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: 100.0% of 3 — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: 100.0% of 3 — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: 100.0% of 3 — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: 100.0% of 6 — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: 100.0% of 3 — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: 100.0% of 3 — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 100.0% of 13 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: 100.0% of 3 — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: 100.0% of 6 — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: 100.0% of 3 — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: 100.0% of 3 — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 13 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: 100.0% of 6 — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: 100.0% of 6 — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 100.0% of 16 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: 66.7% of 3 — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: 100.0% of 6 — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: 100.0% of 3 — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: 100.0% of 6 — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: 100.0% of 3 — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: 100.0% of 3 — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: 16.7% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 13 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: 100.0% of 6 — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: 100.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: 100.0% of 3 — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: 100.0% of 6 — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 16 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: 100.0% of 3 — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: 100.0% of 3 — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: 100.0% of 6 — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: 100.0% of 3 — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 13 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: 100.0% of 3 — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: 100.0% of 6 — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: 100.0% of 3 — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: 100.0% of 6 — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: 100.0% of 6 — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: 100.0% of 3 — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: 100.0% of 3 — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high

E0A E0A id 590: not sampled — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: not sampled — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: not sampled — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: not sampled — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: not sampled — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: not sampled — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: not sampled — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: not sampled — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: not sampled — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 10 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: not sampled — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: not sampled — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: not sampled — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: not sampled — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: not sampled — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: not sampled — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: not sampled — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: not sampled — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: not sampled — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: not sampled — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 80.0% of 10 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: not sampled — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: not sampled — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: not sampled — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: not sampled — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: not sampled — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: not sampled — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 90.0% of 10 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: not sampled — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: not sampled — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: not sampled — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: not sampled — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: not sampled — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: not sampled — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: not sampled — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: not sampled — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: not sampled — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: not sampled — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: not sampled — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: not sampled — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: not sampled — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: not sampled — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: not sampled — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: not sampled — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: not sampled — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: not sampled — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: not sampled — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: not sampled — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: not sampled — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: not sampled — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: not sampled — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: not sampled — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: not sampled — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: not sampled — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 90.0% of 10 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: not sampled — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: not sampled — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: not sampled — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 90.0% of 10 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: not sampled — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: not sampled — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: not sampled — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: not sampled — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: not sampled — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: not sampled — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: not sampled — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: not sampled — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: not sampled — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: not sampled — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: not sampled — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: not sampled — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: not sampled — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 90.0% of 10 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: not sampled — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: not sampled — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: not sampled — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: not sampled — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: not sampled — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: not sampled — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: not sampled — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: not sampled — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 90.0% of 10 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: not sampled — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: not sampled — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: not sampled — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: not sampled — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: not sampled — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: not sampled — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: not sampled — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: not sampled — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: not sampled — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: not sampled — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: not sampled — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: not sampled — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: not sampled — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: not sampled — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: not sampled — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: not sampled — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: not sampled — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: not sampled — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: not sampled — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: not sampled — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: not sampled — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: not sampled — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: not sampled — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: not sampled — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: not sampled — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: not sampled — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: not sampled — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: not sampled — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: not sampled — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: not sampled — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: not sampled — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: not sampled — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: not sampled — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: not sampled — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: not sampled — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: not sampled — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 90.0% of 10 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: not sampled — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: not sampled — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: not sampled — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: not sampled — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: not sampled — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: not sampled — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: not sampled — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: not sampled — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: not sampled — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: not sampled — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: not sampled — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: not sampled — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: not sampled — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: not sampled — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: not sampled — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: not sampled — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: not sampled — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: not sampled — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: not sampled — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: not sampled — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: not sampled — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: not sampled — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 90.0% of 10 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: not sampled — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: not sampled — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: not sampled — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: not sampled — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: not sampled — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: not sampled — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: not sampled — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: not sampled — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: not sampled — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: not sampled — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: not sampled — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: not sampled — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: not sampled — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: not sampled — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: not sampled — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: not sampled — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: not sampled — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 90.0% of 10 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: not sampled — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: not sampled — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: not sampled — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: not sampled — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: not sampled — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 90.0% of 10 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: not sampled — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: not sampled — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: not sampled — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: not sampled — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: not sampled — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: not sampled — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: not sampled — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: not sampled — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: not sampled — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: not sampled — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: not sampled — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: not sampled — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: not sampled — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: not sampled — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: not sampled — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: not sampled — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: not sampled — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: not sampled — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: not sampled — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 90.0% of 10 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: not sampled — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: not sampled — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: not sampled — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: not sampled — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: not sampled — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: not sampled — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: not sampled — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: not sampled — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: not sampled — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: not sampled — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: not sampled — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: not sampled — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: not sampled — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: not sampled — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: not sampled — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 90.0% of 10 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: not sampled — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: not sampled — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: not sampled — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: not sampled — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: not sampled — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: not sampled — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: not sampled — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: not sampled — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: not sampled — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: not sampled — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: not sampled — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: not sampled — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: not sampled — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: not sampled — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: not sampled — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: not sampled — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 90.0% of 10 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: not sampled — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: not sampled — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: not sampled — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: not sampled — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: not sampled — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 10.0% of 10 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: not sampled — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: not sampled — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: not sampled — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: not sampled — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: not sampled — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: not sampled — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: not sampled — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: not sampled — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: not sampled — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: not sampled — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: not sampled — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: not sampled — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: not sampled — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: not sampled — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: not sampled — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: not sampled — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: not sampled — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: not sampled — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: not sampled — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: not sampled — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: not sampled — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 90.0% of 10 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: not sampled — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: not sampled — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: not sampled — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: not sampled — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: not sampled — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: not sampled — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: not sampled — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: not sampled — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: not sampled — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 90.0% of 10 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: not sampled — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: not sampled — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: not sampled — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: not sampled — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: not sampled — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: not sampled — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 90.0% of 10 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: not sampled — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: not sampled — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: not sampled — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: not sampled — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: not sampled — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: not sampled — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: not sampled — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 90.0% of 10 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: not sampled — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: not sampled — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: not sampled — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: not sampled — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: not sampled — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: not sampled — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: not sampled — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: not sampled — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: not sampled — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: not sampled — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: not sampled — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: not sampled — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: not sampled — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: not sampled — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: not sampled — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: not sampled — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: not sampled — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 90.0% of 10 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: not sampled — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: not sampled — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: not sampled — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: not sampled — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: not sampled — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: not sampled — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: not sampled — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: not sampled — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: not sampled — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 90.0% of 10 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: not sampled — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: not sampled — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: not sampled — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: not sampled — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: not sampled — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 90.0% of 10 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: not sampled — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: not sampled — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: not sampled — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: not sampled — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: not sampled — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: not sampled — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: not sampled — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: not sampled — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: not sampled — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: not sampled — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: not sampled — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 90.0% of 10 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: not sampled — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: not sampled — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: not sampled — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: not sampled — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: not sampled — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: not sampled — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: not sampled — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 90.0% of 10 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: not sampled — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: not sampled — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: not sampled — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: not sampled — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: not sampled — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: not sampled — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: not sampled — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: not sampled — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: not sampled — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: not sampled — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: not sampled — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: not sampled — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: not sampled — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: not sampled — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 90.0% of 10 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: not sampled — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: not sampled — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: not sampled — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: not sampled — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: not sampled — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: not sampled — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: not sampled — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: not sampled — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: not sampled — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: not sampled — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: not sampled — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: not sampled — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 90.0% of 10 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: not sampled — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: not sampled — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: not sampled — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: not sampled — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: not sampled — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: not sampled — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: not sampled — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: not sampled — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: not sampled — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: not sampled — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: not sampled — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: not sampled — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: not sampled — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: not sampled — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 90.0% of 10 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: not sampled — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: not sampled — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: not sampled — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: not sampled — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: not sampled — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: not sampled — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: not sampled — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 90.0% of 10 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: not sampled — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: not sampled — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: not sampled — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: not sampled — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: not sampled — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: not sampled — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: not sampled — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: not sampled — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: not sampled — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: not sampled — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: not sampled — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: not sampled — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: not sampled — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: not sampled — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: not sampled — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: not sampled — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 90.0% of 10 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: not sampled — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: not sampled — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: not sampled — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: not sampled — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: not sampled — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: not sampled — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: not sampled — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: not sampled — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: not sampled — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: not sampled — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: not sampled — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: not sampled — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: not sampled — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: not sampled — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 90.0% of 10 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: not sampled — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: not sampled — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: not sampled — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: not sampled — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: not sampled — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: not sampled — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: not sampled — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: not sampled — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: not sampled — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: not sampled — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: not sampled — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: not sampled — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: not sampled — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: not sampled — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: not sampled — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: not sampled — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: not sampled — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: not sampled — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: not sampled — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: not sampled — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: not sampled — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: not sampled — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 90.0% of 10 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: not sampled — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: not sampled — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: not sampled — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: not sampled — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: not sampled — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: not sampled — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: not sampled — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: not sampled — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: not sampled — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: not sampled — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: not sampled — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 90.0% of 10 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: not sampled — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: not sampled — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: not sampled — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: not sampled — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: not sampled — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: not sampled — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: not sampled — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: not sampled — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: not sampled — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: not sampled — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: not sampled — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: not sampled — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: not sampled — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: not sampled — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: not sampled — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: not sampled — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: not sampled — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: not sampled — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: not sampled — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: not sampled — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: not sampled — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: not sampled — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 90.0% of 10 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: not sampled — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: not sampled — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: not sampled — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: not sampled — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: not sampled — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: not sampled — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: not sampled — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: not sampled — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: not sampled — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: not sampled — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: not sampled — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 90.0% of 10 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: not sampled — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: not sampled — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: not sampled — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: not sampled — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: not sampled — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: not sampled — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: not sampled — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: not sampled — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: not sampled — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: not sampled — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: not sampled — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: not sampled — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: not sampled — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 90.0% of 10 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: not sampled — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: not sampled — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: not sampled — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: not sampled — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: not sampled — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 90.0% of 10 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: not sampled — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: not sampled — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: not sampled — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: not sampled — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: not sampled — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: not sampled — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: not sampled — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: not sampled — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: not sampled — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: not sampled — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: not sampled — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: not sampled — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: not sampled — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 90.0% of 10 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: not sampled — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: not sampled — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: not sampled — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: not sampled — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: not sampled — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: not sampled — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: not sampled — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: not sampled — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: not sampled — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: not sampled — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: not sampled — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: not sampled — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: not sampled — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 90.0% of 10 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: not sampled — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: not sampled — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: not sampled — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: not sampled — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: not sampled — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: not sampled — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: not sampled — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 90.0% of 10 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: not sampled — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: not sampled — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: not sampled — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: not sampled — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 90.0% of 10 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: not sampled — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: not sampled — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: not sampled — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: not sampled — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: not sampled — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: not sampled — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: not sampled — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: not sampled — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: not sampled — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: not sampled — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: not sampled — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: not sampled — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 90.0% of 10 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: not sampled — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: not sampled — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: not sampled — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: not sampled — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: not sampled — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: not sampled — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: not sampled — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: not sampled — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 90.0% of 10 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: not sampled — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: not sampled — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: not sampled — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: not sampled — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: not sampled — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: not sampled — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 90.0% of 10 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: not sampled — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: not sampled — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: not sampled — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: not sampled — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: not sampled — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: not sampled — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: not sampled — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: not sampled — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: not sampled — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: not sampled — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001

E0A E0A id 590: 100.0% of 3 — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: 100.0% of 6 — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: 50.0% of 6 — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: 0.0% of 3 — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: 100.0% of 3 — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: 33.3% of 3 — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: 100.0% of 3 — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 6 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: 100.0% of 3 — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: 66.7% of 3 — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: 50.0% of 6 — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: 100.0% of 3 — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: 0.0% of 3 — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: 100.0% of 3 — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: 100.0% of 3 — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: 66.7% of 3 — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: 0.0% of 6 — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: 100.0% of 3 — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 100.0% of 3 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: 100.0% of 6 — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: 100.0% of 6 — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: 0.0% of 3 — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: 100.0% of 3 — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 3 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: 100.0% of 3 — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: 100.0% of 3 — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: 66.7% of 6 — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: 100.0% of 6 — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: 100.0% of 3 — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: 100.0% of 3 — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: 0.0% of 3 — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: 100.0% of 3 — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: 100.0% of 6 — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: 0.0% of 6 — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: 0.0% of 6 — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: 100.0% of 3 — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: 100.0% of 3 — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: 0.0% of 3 — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: 66.7% of 6 — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 100.0% of 3 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: 100.0% of 3 — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 3 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: 100.0% of 3 — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: 100.0% of 3 — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: 50.0% of 6 — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: 100.0% of 3 — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: 16.7% of 6 — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: 0.0% of 6 — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: 0.0% of 3 — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: 100.0% of 6 — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: 100.0% of 3 — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: 100.0% of 3 — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: 100.0% of 3 — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 0.0% of 3 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: 0.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: 100.0% of 3 — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: 0.0% of 3 — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: 100.0% of 3 — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 0.0% of 3 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: 100.0% of 3 — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: 100.0% of 3 — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: 33.3% of 3 — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: 100.0% of 6 — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: 100.0% of 3 — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: 100.0% of 3 — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: 100.0% of 3 — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: 100.0% of 6 — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: 100.0% of 3 — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: 100.0% of 3 — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: 100.0% of 6 — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: 100.0% of 3 — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: 100.0% of 3 — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: 0.0% of 3 — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: 100.0% of 6 — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: 0.0% of 3 — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: 100.0% of 3 — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: 100.0% of 3 — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: 100.0% of 6 — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: 100.0% of 3 — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: 100.0% of 6 — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: 100.0% of 6 — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: 100.0% of 3 — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: 100.0% of 3 — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: 100.0% of 3 — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: 100.0% of 3 — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: 100.0% of 3 — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 3 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: 16.7% of 6 — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: 100.0% of 6 — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: 100.0% of 6 — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: 0.0% of 3 — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: 100.0% of 6 — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: 100.0% of 3 — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: 100.0% of 6 — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: 100.0% of 3 — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: 0.0% of 3 — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: 0.0% of 6 — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: 100.0% of 3 — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: 100.0% of 3 — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: 100.0% of 3 — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: 100.0% of 3 — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 3 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: 100.0% of 3 — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: 100.0% of 3 — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: 100.0% of 3 — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: 100.0% of 3 — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: 100.0% of 3 — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: 100.0% of 3 — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: 100.0% of 6 — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: 100.0% of 3 — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: 100.0% of 6 — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: 100.0% of 3 — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: 0.0% of 3 — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: 100.0% of 3 — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: 100.0% of 3 — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: 100.0% of 3 — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: 100.0% of 3 — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: 100.0% of 3 — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 3 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: 100.0% of 3 — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: 100.0% of 6 — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: 0.0% of 6 — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: 100.0% of 3 — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: 100.0% of 3 — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: 100.0% of 3 — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: 100.0% of 6 — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 0.0% of 3 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: 100.0% of 3 — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: 100.0% of 3 — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: 100.0% of 6 — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: 100.0% of 3 — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: 100.0% of 3 — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: 100.0% of 3 — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: 100.0% of 6 — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: 100.0% of 3 — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: 100.0% of 3 — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: 100.0% of 3 — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 3 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: 100.0% of 3 — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: 100.0% of 3 — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: 100.0% of 3 — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: 100.0% of 3 — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: 100.0% of 3 — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: 0.0% of 3 — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: 100.0% of 3 — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 6 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: 100.0% of 3 — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: 100.0% of 3 — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: 100.0% of 3 — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: 33.3% of 3 — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: 100.0% of 3 — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 83.3% of 6 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: 100.0% of 3 — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: 100.0% of 3 — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: 100.0% of 3 — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: 100.0% of 3 — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: 100.0% of 3 — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: 100.0% of 3 — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: 100.0% of 3 — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: 100.0% of 3 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: 100.0% of 6 — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: 100.0% of 3 — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: 100.0% of 6 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 3 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: 100.0% of 6 — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: 100.0% of 3 — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: 0.0% of 3 — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: 100.0% of 6 — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: 100.0% of 3 — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: 83.3% of 6 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 3 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: 100.0% of 6 — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: 100.0% of 3 — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: 100.0% of 3 — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 3 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: 100.0% of 3 — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: 100.0% of 3 — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: 0.0% of 3 — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: 100.0% of 3 — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: 0.0% of 6 — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: 100.0% of 3 — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: 100.0% of 3 — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: 100.0% of 6 — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: 0.0% of 3 — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: 0.0% of 3 — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: 0.0% of 3 — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: 0.0% of 3 — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: 100.0% of 6 — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: 100.0% of 6 — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: 100.0% of 3 — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: 100.0% of 3 — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: 100.0% of 3 — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: 100.0% of 3 — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 3 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: 100.0% of 6 — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: 100.0% of 3 — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: 100.0% of 6 — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: 0.0% of 3 — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 3 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: 100.0% of 6 — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: 0.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 3 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: 100.0% of 3 — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: 100.0% of 3 — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: 100.0% of 3 — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: 33.3% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: 100.0% of 6 — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: 100.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: 100.0% of 3 — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: 100.0% of 6 — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: 100.0% of 3 — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 100.0% of 3 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: 100.0% of 3 — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: 0.0% of 3 — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: 100.0% of 3 — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: 100.0% of 3 — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: 100.0% of 3 — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 3 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: 100.0% of 3 — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: 100.0% of 6 — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: 100.0% of 3 — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: 0.0% of 6 — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: 100.0% of 3 — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: 100.0% of 3 — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: 100.0% of 6 — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: 0.0% of 3 — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 3 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: 100.0% of 6 — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: 100.0% of 6 — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: 100.0% of 6 — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: 100.0% of 3 — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: 33.3% of 3 — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: 100.0% of 3 — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: 100.0% of 3 — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: 100.0% of 3 — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: 100.0% of 6 — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: 100.0% of 3 — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: 100.0% of 3 — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: 100.0% of 6 — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: 100.0% of 3 — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: 100.0% of 3 — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: 100.0% of 6 — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: 100.0% of 3 — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: 100.0% of 3 — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: 100.0% of 3 — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: 100.0% of 6 — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: 0.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: 0.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: 100.0% of 3 — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: 100.0% of 3 — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 6 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: 66.7% of 3 — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: 100.0% of 3 — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: 100.0% of 3 — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: 100.0% of 3 — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: 100.0% of 3 — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: 100.0% of 3 — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: 100.0% of 3 — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 3 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: 100.0% of 6 — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: 100.0% of 3 — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: 100.0% of 3 — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: 0.0% of 6 — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: 100.0% of 6 — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: 100.0% of 3 — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: 100.0% of 3 — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: 100.0% of 3 — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: 100.0% of 3 — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: 100.0% of 6 — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: 100.0% of 3 — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: 100.0% of 3 — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: 100.0% of 3 — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: 100.0% of 3 — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: 100.0% of 6 — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: 100.0% of 3 — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: 100.0% of 6 — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: 33.3% of 3 — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: 100.0% of 6 — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: 100.0% of 3 — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: 100.0% of 3 — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: 100.0% of 3 — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: 100.0% of 3 — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: 100.0% of 3 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: 100.0% of 6 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: 100.0% of 3 — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: 100.0% of 6 — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: 100.0% of 3 — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 3 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: 100.0% of 6 — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: 100.0% of 3 — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: 100.0% of 3 — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: 66.7% of 3 — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: 100.0% of 6 — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: 100.0% of 3 — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: 100.0% of 6 — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: 100.0% of 3 — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: 100.0% of 6 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: 100.0% of 3 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: 100.0% of 6 — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: 100.0% of 3 — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: 100.0% of 6 — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: 100.0% of 3 — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 6 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: 100.0% of 3 — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: 0.0% of 3 — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: 100.0% of 3 — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: 66.7% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: 100.0% of 3 — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: 100.0% of 3 — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: 100.0% of 3 — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 3 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: 100.0% of 3 — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: 100.0% of 3 — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: 0.0% of 3 — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: 100.0% of 3 — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: 100.0% of 3 — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: 100.0% of 6 — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: 100.0% of 3 — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: 100.0% of 3 — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: 100.0% of 6 — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: 100.0% of 6 — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 3 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: 100.0% of 3 — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: 33.3% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: 100.0% of 3 — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: 100.0% of 6 — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: 100.0% of 3 — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: 100.0% of 6 — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: 100.0% of 6 — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: 0.0% of 3 — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: 66.7% of 3 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: 0.0% of 6 — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: 50.0% of 6 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: 0.0% of 6 — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: 100.0% of 3 — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 3 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: 100.0% of 3 — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: 100.0% of 3 — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: 100.0% of 3 — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: 0.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: 100.0% of 6 — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: 100.0% of 3 — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: 100.0% of 3 — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: 100.0% of 3 — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: 100.0% of 6 — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: 100.0% of 3 — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: 100.0% of 3 — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 3 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: 100.0% of 6 — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: 16.7% of 6 — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 33.3% of 6 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: 100.0% of 3 — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: 100.0% of 6 — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: 0.0% of 3 — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: 100.0% of 6 — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: 100.0% of 3 — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: 100.0% of 3 — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: 0.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 3 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: 100.0% of 6 — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: 100.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: 100.0% of 3 — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: 100.0% of 6 — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: 100.0% of 3 — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: 66.7% of 3 — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: 16.7% of 6 — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: 100.0% of 3 — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 3 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: 100.0% of 3 — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: 0.0% of 6 — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: 100.0% of 3 — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: 16.7% of 6 — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: 100.0% of 6 — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: 100.0% of 3 — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: 100.0% of 3 — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

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E0A E0A id 590: 100.0% of 3 — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: 100.0% of 6 — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: 100.0% of 6 — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: 33.3% of 3 — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: 100.0% of 3 — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: 0.0% of 3 — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: 100.0% of 3 — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 6 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: 100.0% of 3 — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: 83.3% of 6 — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: 100.0% of 3 — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: 0.0% of 3 — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: 100.0% of 3 — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: 100.0% of 3 — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: 100.0% of 3 — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: 0.0% of 6 — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: 100.0% of 3 — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 100.0% of 3 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: 100.0% of 6 — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: 100.0% of 6 — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: 0.0% of 3 — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: 100.0% of 3 — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 3 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: 100.0% of 3 — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: 100.0% of 3 — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: 83.3% of 6 — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: 100.0% of 6 — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: not sampled — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: not sampled — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: not sampled — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: not sampled — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: not sampled — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: not sampled — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: not sampled — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: not sampled — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: not sampled — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: not sampled — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: not sampled — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: 0.0% of 45 — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: 100.0% of 3 — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: 33.3% of 3 — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: 0.0% of 3 — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: 100.0% of 6 — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 100.0% of 3 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: 100.0% of 3 — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 3 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: 100.0% of 3 — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: 100.0% of 3 — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: 50.0% of 6 — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: 100.0% of 3 — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: 0.0% of 6 — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: 0.0% of 6 — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: 0.0% of 3 — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: 100.0% of 6 — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: 100.0% of 3 — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: 0.0% of 3 — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: 100.0% of 3 — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 0.0% of 3 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: 0.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: 100.0% of 3 — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: 0.0% of 3 — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: 100.0% of 3 — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 0.0% of 3 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: 100.0% of 3 — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: 100.0% of 3 — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: 100.0% of 6 — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: 100.0% of 3 — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: 100.0% of 3 — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: 100.0% of 3 — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: 100.0% of 6 — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: 100.0% of 3 — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: 100.0% of 3 — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: 100.0% of 6 — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: 100.0% of 3 — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: 100.0% of 3 — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: 0.0% of 3 — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: 100.0% of 6 — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: 66.7% of 3 — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: 100.0% of 3 — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: 100.0% of 3 — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: 100.0% of 6 — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: 100.0% of 3 — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: 100.0% of 6 — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: 100.0% of 6 — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: 100.0% of 3 — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: 100.0% of 3 — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: 100.0% of 3 — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: 100.0% of 3 — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: 100.0% of 3 — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 3 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: 33.3% of 6 — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: 100.0% of 6 — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: 100.0% of 6 — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: 0.0% of 3 — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: 100.0% of 6 — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: 100.0% of 3 — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: 100.0% of 6 — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: 100.0% of 3 — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: 0.0% of 3 — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: 0.0% of 6 — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: 100.0% of 3 — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: 100.0% of 3 — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: 100.0% of 3 — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: 100.0% of 3 — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 3 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: 100.0% of 3 — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: 100.0% of 3 — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: 100.0% of 3 — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: 100.0% of 3 — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: 100.0% of 3 — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: 100.0% of 3 — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: 100.0% of 6 — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: 100.0% of 3 — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: 100.0% of 6 — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: 100.0% of 3 — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: 0.0% of 3 — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: 100.0% of 3 — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: 100.0% of 3 — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: 100.0% of 3 — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: 100.0% of 3 — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: 100.0% of 3 — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 3 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: 100.0% of 3 — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: 100.0% of 6 — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: 0.0% of 6 — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: 100.0% of 3 — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: 100.0% of 3 — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: 100.0% of 3 — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: 100.0% of 6 — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 33.3% of 3 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: 100.0% of 3 — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: 100.0% of 3 — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: 100.0% of 6 — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: 100.0% of 3 — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: 100.0% of 3 — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: 100.0% of 3 — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: 100.0% of 6 — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: 100.0% of 3 — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: 100.0% of 3 — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: 100.0% of 3 — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 3 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: 100.0% of 3 — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: 100.0% of 3 — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: 100.0% of 3 — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: 100.0% of 3 — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: 100.0% of 3 — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: 0.0% of 3 — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: 100.0% of 3 — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 6 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: 100.0% of 3 — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: 66.7% of 3 — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: 100.0% of 3 — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: 100.0% of 3 — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: 100.0% of 3 — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 83.3% of 6 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: 100.0% of 3 — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: 100.0% of 3 — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: 100.0% of 3 — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: 100.0% of 3 — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: 100.0% of 3 — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: 100.0% of 3 — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: 100.0% of 3 — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: 100.0% of 3 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: 100.0% of 6 — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: 100.0% of 3 — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: 100.0% of 6 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 3 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: 100.0% of 6 — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: 100.0% of 3 — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: 0.0% of 3 — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: 100.0% of 6 — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: 100.0% of 3 — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: 100.0% of 6 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 3 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: 100.0% of 6 — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: 100.0% of 3 — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: 100.0% of 3 — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 3 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: 100.0% of 3 — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: 100.0% of 3 — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: 0.0% of 3 — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: 100.0% of 3 — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: 16.7% of 6 — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: 100.0% of 3 — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: 100.0% of 3 — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: 100.0% of 6 — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: 0.0% of 3 — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: 0.0% of 3 — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: 0.0% of 3 — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: 0.0% of 3 — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: 100.0% of 6 — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: 100.0% of 6 — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: 100.0% of 3 — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: 100.0% of 3 — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: 100.0% of 3 — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: 100.0% of 3 — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 3 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: 100.0% of 6 — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: 100.0% of 3 — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: 100.0% of 6 — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: 0.0% of 3 — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 3 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: 100.0% of 6 — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: 0.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 3 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: 100.0% of 3 — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: 100.0% of 3 — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: 100.0% of 3 — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: 66.7% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: 100.0% of 6 — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: 100.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: 100.0% of 3 — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: 100.0% of 6 — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: 100.0% of 3 — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 100.0% of 3 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: 100.0% of 3 — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: 0.0% of 3 — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: 100.0% of 3 — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: 100.0% of 3 — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: 100.0% of 3 — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 3 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: 100.0% of 3 — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: 100.0% of 6 — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: 100.0% of 3 — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: 0.0% of 6 — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: 100.0% of 3 — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: 100.0% of 3 — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: 100.0% of 6 — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: 0.0% of 3 — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 3 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: 100.0% of 6 — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: 100.0% of 6 — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: 100.0% of 6 — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: 100.0% of 3 — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: 66.7% of 3 — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: 100.0% of 3 — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: 100.0% of 3 — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: 100.0% of 3 — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: 100.0% of 6 — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: 100.0% of 3 — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: 100.0% of 3 — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: 100.0% of 6 — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: 100.0% of 3 — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: 100.0% of 3 — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: 100.0% of 6 — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: 100.0% of 3 — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: 100.0% of 3 — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: 100.0% of 3 — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: 100.0% of 6 — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: 0.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: 0.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: 100.0% of 3 — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: 100.0% of 3 — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 6 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: 33.3% of 3 — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: 100.0% of 3 — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: 100.0% of 3 — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: 100.0% of 3 — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: 100.0% of 3 — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: 100.0% of 3 — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: 100.0% of 3 — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 3 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: 66.7% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: 100.0% of 6 — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: 100.0% of 3 — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: 100.0% of 3 — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: 0.0% of 6 — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: 100.0% of 6 — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: 100.0% of 3 — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: 100.0% of 3 — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: 100.0% of 3 — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: 100.0% of 3 — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: 100.0% of 6 — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: 100.0% of 3 — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: 100.0% of 3 — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: 100.0% of 3 — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: 100.0% of 3 — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: 100.0% of 6 — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: 100.0% of 3 — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: 100.0% of 6 — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: 33.3% of 3 — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: 100.0% of 6 — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: 100.0% of 3 — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: 100.0% of 3 — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: 100.0% of 3 — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: 100.0% of 3 — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: 100.0% of 3 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: 100.0% of 6 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: 100.0% of 3 — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: 100.0% of 6 — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: 100.0% of 3 — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 3 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: 100.0% of 6 — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: 100.0% of 3 — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: 100.0% of 3 — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: 66.7% of 3 — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: 100.0% of 6 — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: 100.0% of 3 — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: 100.0% of 6 — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: 100.0% of 3 — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: 100.0% of 6 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: 100.0% of 3 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: 100.0% of 6 — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: 100.0% of 3 — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: 100.0% of 6 — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: 100.0% of 3 — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 6 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: 100.0% of 3 — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: 0.0% of 3 — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: 100.0% of 3 — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: 66.7% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: 66.7% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: 100.0% of 3 — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: 100.0% of 3 — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: 100.0% of 3 — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 3 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: 100.0% of 3 — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: 100.0% of 3 — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: 0.0% of 3 — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: 100.0% of 3 — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: 100.0% of 3 — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: 100.0% of 6 — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: 100.0% of 3 — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: 100.0% of 3 — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: 100.0% of 6 — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: 100.0% of 6 — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 3 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: 100.0% of 3 — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: 66.7% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: 100.0% of 3 — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: 100.0% of 6 — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: 33.3% of 3 — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: 100.0% of 3 — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: 100.0% of 6 — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: 100.0% of 6 — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: 0.0% of 3 — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: 0.0% of 3 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: 0.0% of 6 — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: 66.7% of 6 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: 0.0% of 6 — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: 100.0% of 3 — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 3 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: 100.0% of 3 — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: 100.0% of 3 — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: 100.0% of 3 — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: 0.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: 100.0% of 6 — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: 100.0% of 3 — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: 100.0% of 3 — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: 100.0% of 3 — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: 100.0% of 6 — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: 66.7% of 3 — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: 100.0% of 3 — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: 100.0% of 3 — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 3 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: 100.0% of 6 — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: 16.7% of 6 — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 0.0% of 6 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: 100.0% of 3 — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: 100.0% of 6 — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: 0.0% of 3 — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: 100.0% of 6 — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: 100.0% of 3 — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: 100.0% of 3 — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: 33.3% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 3 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: 100.0% of 6 — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: 100.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: 100.0% of 3 — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: 100.0% of 6 — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: 100.0% of 3 — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: 100.0% of 3 — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: 50.0% of 6 — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: 100.0% of 3 — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 3 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: 100.0% of 3 — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: 0.0% of 6 — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: 100.0% of 3 — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: 33.3% of 6 — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: 100.0% of 6 — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: 100.0% of 3 — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: 100.0% of 3 — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42

E0A E0A id 590: 100.0% of 3 — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: 100.0% of 6 — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: 100.0% of 6 — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: 0.0% of 3 — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: 100.0% of 3 — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: 0.0% of 3 — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: 100.0% of 3 — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: 33.3% of 3 — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 6 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: 100.0% of 3 — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: 100.0% of 3 — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: 0.0% of 3 — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: 100.0% of 3 — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: 100.0% of 3 — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: 100.0% of 3 — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: 0.0% of 6 — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: 100.0% of 3 — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 100.0% of 3 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: 100.0% of 6 — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: 100.0% of 6 — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: 0.0% of 3 — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: 100.0% of 3 — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 3 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: 100.0% of 3 — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: 100.0% of 3 — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: 83.3% of 6 — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: 100.0% of 6 — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: 100.0% of 3 — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: 100.0% of 3 — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: 0.0% of 3 — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: 100.0% of 3 — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: 100.0% of 6 — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: 0.0% of 6 — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: 0.0% of 6 — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: not sampled — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: not sampled — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: not sampled — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: not sampled — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: not sampled — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: not sampled — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: not sampled — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: 0.0% of 45 — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: not sampled — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: not sampled — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: not sampled — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: not sampled — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: 100.0% of 3 — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 3 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: 100.0% of 3 — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: 100.0% of 3 — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: 66.7% of 6 — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: 100.0% of 3 — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: 50.0% of 6 — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: 16.7% of 6 — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: 0.0% of 3 — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: 100.0% of 6 — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: 100.0% of 3 — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: 0.0% of 3 — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: 100.0% of 3 — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 0.0% of 3 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: 0.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: 100.0% of 3 — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: 0.0% of 3 — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: 100.0% of 3 — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 0.0% of 3 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: 100.0% of 3 — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: 100.0% of 3 — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: 100.0% of 6 — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: 100.0% of 3 — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: 100.0% of 3 — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: 100.0% of 3 — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: 100.0% of 6 — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: 100.0% of 3 — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: 100.0% of 3 — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: 100.0% of 6 — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: 100.0% of 3 — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: 100.0% of 3 — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: 0.0% of 3 — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: 100.0% of 6 — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: 66.7% of 3 — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: 100.0% of 3 — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: 100.0% of 3 — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: 100.0% of 6 — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: 100.0% of 3 — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: 100.0% of 6 — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: 100.0% of 6 — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: 100.0% of 3 — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: 100.0% of 3 — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: 100.0% of 3 — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: 66.7% of 3 — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: 100.0% of 3 — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 3 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: 33.3% of 6 — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: 100.0% of 6 — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: 100.0% of 6 — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: 0.0% of 3 — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: 100.0% of 6 — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: 100.0% of 3 — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: 83.3% of 6 — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: 100.0% of 3 — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: 0.0% of 3 — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: 0.0% of 6 — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: 100.0% of 3 — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: 100.0% of 3 — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: 100.0% of 3 — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: 100.0% of 3 — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 3 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: 100.0% of 3 — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: 100.0% of 3 — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: 100.0% of 3 — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: 100.0% of 3 — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: 100.0% of 3 — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: 100.0% of 3 — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: 100.0% of 6 — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: 100.0% of 3 — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: 100.0% of 6 — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: 100.0% of 3 — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: 66.7% of 3 — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: 100.0% of 3 — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: 100.0% of 3 — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: 100.0% of 3 — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: 100.0% of 3 — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: 100.0% of 3 — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 3 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: 100.0% of 3 — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: 100.0% of 6 — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: 0.0% of 6 — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: 100.0% of 3 — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: 100.0% of 3 — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: 100.0% of 3 — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: 100.0% of 6 — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 0.0% of 3 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: 100.0% of 3 — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: 100.0% of 3 — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: 100.0% of 6 — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: 100.0% of 3 — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: 100.0% of 3 — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: 100.0% of 3 — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: 100.0% of 6 — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: 100.0% of 3 — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: 100.0% of 3 — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: 100.0% of 3 — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 3 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: 100.0% of 3 — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: 100.0% of 3 — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: 100.0% of 3 — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: 100.0% of 3 — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: 100.0% of 3 — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: 0.0% of 3 — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: 100.0% of 3 — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 6 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: 100.0% of 3 — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: 100.0% of 3 — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: 100.0% of 3 — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: 100.0% of 3 — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: 100.0% of 3 — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: 100.0% of 3 — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: 100.0% of 3 — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: 100.0% of 3 — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: 100.0% of 3 — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: 100.0% of 3 — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: 100.0% of 3 — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: 100.0% of 3 — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: 100.0% of 3 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: 100.0% of 6 — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: 100.0% of 3 — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: 100.0% of 6 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 3 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: 100.0% of 6 — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: 100.0% of 3 — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: 0.0% of 3 — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: 100.0% of 6 — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: 100.0% of 3 — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: 33.3% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: 100.0% of 6 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 3 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: 100.0% of 6 — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: 100.0% of 3 — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: 100.0% of 3 — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 3 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: 100.0% of 3 — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: 100.0% of 3 — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: 0.0% of 3 — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: 100.0% of 3 — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: 33.3% of 6 — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: 100.0% of 3 — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: 100.0% of 3 — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: 100.0% of 6 — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: 0.0% of 3 — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: 0.0% of 3 — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: 0.0% of 3 — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: 0.0% of 3 — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: 100.0% of 6 — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: 100.0% of 6 — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: 100.0% of 3 — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: 100.0% of 3 — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: 100.0% of 3 — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: 100.0% of 3 — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 3 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: 100.0% of 6 — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: 100.0% of 3 — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: 100.0% of 6 — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: 0.0% of 3 — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 3 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: 100.0% of 6 — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: 0.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 3 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: 100.0% of 3 — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: 100.0% of 3 — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: 100.0% of 3 — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: 33.3% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: 100.0% of 6 — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: 100.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: 100.0% of 3 — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: 100.0% of 6 — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: 100.0% of 3 — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 33.3% of 3 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: 100.0% of 3 — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: 0.0% of 3 — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: 100.0% of 3 — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: 100.0% of 3 — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: 100.0% of 3 — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 3 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: 100.0% of 3 — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: 100.0% of 6 — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: 100.0% of 3 — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: 0.0% of 6 — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: 100.0% of 3 — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: 100.0% of 3 — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: 100.0% of 6 — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: 0.0% of 3 — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 3 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: 100.0% of 6 — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: 100.0% of 6 — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: 100.0% of 6 — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: 100.0% of 3 — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: 33.3% of 3 — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: 100.0% of 3 — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: 100.0% of 3 — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: 100.0% of 3 — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: 100.0% of 6 — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: 100.0% of 3 — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: 100.0% of 3 — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: 100.0% of 6 — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: 100.0% of 3 — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: 100.0% of 3 — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: 100.0% of 6 — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: 100.0% of 3 — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: 100.0% of 3 — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: 100.0% of 3 — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: 100.0% of 6 — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: 0.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: 0.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: 100.0% of 3 — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: 100.0% of 3 — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 6 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: 66.7% of 3 — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: 100.0% of 3 — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: 100.0% of 3 — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: 100.0% of 3 — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: 100.0% of 3 — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: 100.0% of 3 — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: 100.0% of 3 — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 3 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: 100.0% of 6 — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: 100.0% of 3 — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: 100.0% of 3 — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: 0.0% of 6 — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: 100.0% of 6 — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: 100.0% of 3 — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: 100.0% of 3 — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: 100.0% of 3 — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: 100.0% of 3 — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: 100.0% of 6 — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: 100.0% of 3 — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: 100.0% of 3 — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: 100.0% of 3 — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: 100.0% of 3 — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: 100.0% of 6 — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: 100.0% of 3 — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: 100.0% of 6 — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: 33.3% of 3 — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: 100.0% of 6 — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: 100.0% of 3 — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: 100.0% of 3 — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: 100.0% of 3 — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: 100.0% of 3 — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: 100.0% of 3 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: 100.0% of 6 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: 100.0% of 3 — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: 100.0% of 6 — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: 100.0% of 3 — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 3 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: 100.0% of 6 — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: 100.0% of 3 — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: 100.0% of 3 — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: 100.0% of 6 — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: 100.0% of 3 — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: 100.0% of 6 — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: 100.0% of 3 — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: 100.0% of 6 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: 100.0% of 3 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: 100.0% of 6 — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: 100.0% of 3 — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: 100.0% of 6 — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: 100.0% of 3 — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 6 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: 100.0% of 3 — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: 100.0% of 3 — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: 100.0% of 3 — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: 100.0% of 3 — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: 100.0% of 3 — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: 100.0% of 3 — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 3 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: 100.0% of 3 — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: 100.0% of 3 — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: 0.0% of 3 — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: 100.0% of 3 — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: 100.0% of 3 — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: 100.0% of 6 — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: 100.0% of 3 — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: 100.0% of 3 — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: 100.0% of 6 — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: 100.0% of 6 — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 3 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: 100.0% of 3 — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: 100.0% of 3 — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: 100.0% of 6 — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: 33.3% of 3 — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: 100.0% of 3 — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: 100.0% of 6 — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: 100.0% of 6 — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: 0.0% of 3 — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: 0.0% of 3 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: 0.0% of 6 — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: 16.7% of 6 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: 16.7% of 6 — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: 100.0% of 3 — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 3 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: 100.0% of 3 — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: 100.0% of 3 — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: 100.0% of 3 — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: 0.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: 100.0% of 6 — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: 100.0% of 3 — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: 100.0% of 3 — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: 33.3% of 3 — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: 100.0% of 3 — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: 100.0% of 6 — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: 100.0% of 3 — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: 100.0% of 3 — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 3 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: 100.0% of 6 — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: 0.0% of 6 — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 16.7% of 6 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: 100.0% of 3 — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: 100.0% of 6 — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: 0.0% of 3 — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: 100.0% of 6 — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: 100.0% of 3 — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: 100.0% of 3 — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: 0.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 3 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: 100.0% of 6 — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: 100.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: 66.7% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: 100.0% of 3 — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: 100.0% of 6 — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: 66.7% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: 100.0% of 3 — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: 100.0% of 3 — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: 16.7% of 6 — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: 100.0% of 3 — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 3 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: 100.0% of 3 — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: 0.0% of 6 — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: 100.0% of 3 — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: 66.7% of 6 — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: 100.0% of 6 — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: 100.0% of 3 — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: 100.0% of 3 — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9

E0A E0A id 590: 100.0% of 3 — What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? E0A id 591: 100.0% of 6 — When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? E0A id 592: 100.0% of 6 — Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? E0A id 593: 0.0% of 3 — When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which trans E0A id 594: 100.0% of 3 — What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies ? E0A id 595: 0.0% of 3 — Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz ? E0A id 596: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “100% tie- off” regard ing tower safety? E0A id 597: 100.0% of 3 — What does SAR measure? E0A id 598: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations ? E0A id 599: 100.0% of 6 — When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters ? E0A id 600: 100.0% of 3 — To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? E0A id 601: 66.7% of 3 — Where should a shock -absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? E1A E1A id 1: not sampled — Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? E1A id 2: not sampled — When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequenc E1A id 3: not sampled — What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? E1A id 4: not sampled — May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone ? E1A id 5: not sampled — Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is docume E1A id 6: not sampled — What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation ? E1A id 7: not sampled — What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band? E1A id 8: not sampled — If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is p E1A id 9: 62.2% of 45 — Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band? E1A id 10: not sampled — If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? E1A id 11: not sampled — What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US -registered vessel in international waters? E1B E1B id 12: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? E1B id 13: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow -scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateu E1B id 14: 0.0% of 3 — Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? E1B id 15: 100.0% of 3 — What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experienc E1B id 16: 100.0% of 3 — What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? E1B id 17: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or n E1B id 18: 100.0% of 3 — To what type of regulations does PRB -1 apply? E1B id 19: 100.0% of 3 — What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broad cast recept E1B id 20: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? E1B id 21: 83.3% of 6 — What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? E1B id 22: 100.0% of 6 — What does PRB -1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures ? E1C E1C id 23: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? E1C id 24: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? E1C id 25: 100.0% of 3 — How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating E1C id 26: 100.0% of 3 — What is an IARP? E1C id 27: 0.0% of 3 — Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ? E1C id 28: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitte E1C id 29: 100.0% of 3 — What notifications must be given bef ore transmitting on the 630 - or 2200- meter bands? E1C id 30: 100.0% of 6 — What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctio E1C id 31: 0.0% of 6 — What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? E1C id 32: 0.0% of 3 — What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission ? E1C id 33: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC -licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, E1C id 34: 0.0% of 6 — In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted? E1D E1D id 35: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of telemetry? E1D id 36: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages ? E1D id 37: 100.0% of 3 — What is a space telecommand station? E1D id 38: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is required in the identification tra nsmissions from a balloon -borne telemetry station? E1D id 39: 0.0% of 3 — What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the E arth’ E1D id 40: 100.0% of 3 — What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? E1D id 41: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? E1D id 42: 0.0% of 3 — Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 43: 66.7% of 6 — Which UHF amateur band s have frequencies authorized for space stations? E1D id 44: 100.0% of 3 — Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations , subject to the privileges of the clas E1D id 45: 100.0% of 6 — Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? E1D id 46: 0.0% of 3 — Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one- way communications? E1E E1E id 47: 100.0% of 3 — For which types of out -of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? E1E id 48: 100.0% of 3 — Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of q uestions for all US amateur license examinations? E1E id 49: 100.0% of 3 — What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? E1E id 50: 100.0% of 3 — What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner ? E1E id 51: 50.0% of 6 — What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? E1E id 52: 100.0% of 3 — Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination sessi E1E id 53: 33.3% of 6 — What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license e E1E id 54: 0.0% of 6 — To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? E1E id 55: 0.0% of 3 — What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? E1E id 56: 100.0% of 6 — What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? E1E id 57: 100.0% of 3 — What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination element s needed for an upgrade or new E1F E1F id 58: 100.0% of 3 — On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? E1F id 59: 100.0% of 3 — What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Cana E1F id 60: 100.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has n E1F id 61: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? E1F id 62: 0.0% of 3 — Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 E1F id 63: 0.0% of 6 — Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? E1F id 64: 100.0% of 3 — When may an amateur station send a message to a business? E1F id 65: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited ? E1F id 66: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? E1F id 67: 0.0% of 3 — Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? E1F id 68: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is t E2A E2A id 69: 100.0% of 3 — What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? E2A id 70: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 71: 0.0% of 3 — How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? E2A id 72: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 73: 100.0% of 3 — What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? E2A id 74: 100.0% of 3 — What are Keplerian elements? E2A id 75: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? E2A id 76: 100.0% of 6 — Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? E2A id 77: 100.0% of 3 — What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? E2A id 78: 100.0% of 3 — What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? E2A id 79: 100.0% of 3 — What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? E2A id 80: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of digital store -and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? E2A id 81: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages? E2B E2B id 82: 100.0% of 6 — In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? E2B id 83: 100.0% of 3 — How many horizontal lines make up a fast -scan (NTSC) television frame? E2B id 84: 100.0% of 3 — How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast -scan (NTSC) television system? E2B id 85: 100.0% of 6 — How is color information sent in analog SSTV? E2B id 86: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast -scan TV transmissions? E2B id 87: 100.0% of 3 — What is vestigial sideband modulation? E2B id 88: 100.0% of 3 — Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB- T signals? E2B id 89: 0.0% of 3 — What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band? E2B id 90: 100.0% of 6 — What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol ? E2B id 91: 0.0% of 3 — What aspect of an analog slow -scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? E2B id 92: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? E2B id 93: 100.0% of 3 — What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? E2C E2C id 94: 100.0% of 3 — What indicator is required to be used by US -licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remo E2C id 95: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? E2C id 96: 100.0% of 6 — From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? E2C id 97: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? E2C id 98: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? E2C id 99: 100.0% of 3 — During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? E2C id 100: 100.0% of 6 — What is the Cabrillo format? E2C id 101: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (L oTW)? E2C id 102: 100.0% of 6 — What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? E2C id 103: 100.0% of 3 — Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies ? E2C id 104: 100.0% of 3 — How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? E2C id 105: 100.0% of 3 — What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corres ponding change in the transmitted signal? E2D E2D id 106: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital mode s is designed for meteor scatter communications? E2D id 107: 100.0% of 3 — What information replaces signal- to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? E2D id 108: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? E2D id 109: 100.0% of 3 — What technology is used for real- time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters ? E2D id 110: 100.0% of 3 — What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? E2D id 111: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? E2D id 112: 100.0% of 6 — What digital protocol is used by APRS? E2D id 113: 100.0% of 6 — What type of packet frame is used to transm it APRS beacon data? E2D id 114: 0.0% of 3 — What type of modulation is used by JT65? E2D id 115: 100.0% of 6 — What does the packet path WIDE3 -1 designate? E2D id 116: 100.0% of 3 — How do APRS stations relay data? E2E E2E id 117: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? E2E id 118: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following synchronizes WSJT -X digital mode transmit/receive timing? E2E id 119: 83.3% of 6 — To what does the "4" in FT4 refer ? E2E id 120: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? E2E id 121: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard -to-keyboard operation? E2E id 122: 100.0% of 3 — What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? E2E id 123: 0.0% of 3 — How does Q65 differ from JT65? E2E id 124: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? E2E id 125: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable -length character coding? E2E id 126: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? E2E id 127: 0.0% of 6 — What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? E2E id 128: 100.0% of 3 — How do ALE stations establish contact? E2E id 129: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? E3A E3A id 130: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by E3A id 131: 100.0% of 3 — What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? E3A id 132: 100.0% of 3 — When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditi ons will generally result in the least path loss? E3A id 133: 100.0% of 3 — In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? E3A id 134: 100.0% of 3 — How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? E3A id 135: 100.0% of 3 — What should be done to continue a long- distance contact when the MUF for that pa th decreases due to darkness ? E3A id 136: 100.0% of 3 — Atmospheric ducts capable of prop agating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? E3A id 137: 100.0% of 3 — When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what re gion of the ionosphere? E3A id 138: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor- scatter communications? E3A id 139: 100.0% of 3 — What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? E3A id 140: 100.0% of 3 — What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? E3A id 141: 100.0% of 3 — What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? E3A id 142: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? E3A id 143: 100.0% of 6 — What are circularly polarized elec tromagnetic waves? E3B E3B id 144: 100.0% of 3 — Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur ? E3B id 145: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? E3B id 146: 100.0% of 6 — At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur ? E3B id 147: 100.0% of 3 — What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? E3B id 148: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following paths is most likely to support long- distance propagation on 160 meters ? E3B id 149: 0.0% of 3 — On w hich of the following amateur bands is long -path propagation most frequent ? E3B id 150: 100.0% of 3 — What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propa gation? E3B id 151: 100.0% of 3 — How does the maximum range of ground -wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? E3B id 152: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 153: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? E3B id 154: 100.0% of 3 — At what time of day is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur? E3B id 155: 100.0% of 3 — What is chordal- hop propagation? E3B id 156: 100.0% of 3 — What type of polarization is supported by ground -wave propagation? E3C E3C id 157: 100.0% of 3 — What is the cause of short -term radio blackouts? E3C id 158: 100.0% of 3 — What is indicated by a rising A -index or K -index? E3C id 159: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K -index E3C id 160: 100.0% of 3 — What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? E3C id 161: 100.0% of 6 — What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charge d particles from the S un will cause disturbed con E3C id 162: 0.0% of 6 — How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? E3C id 163: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? E3C id 164: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the space -weather term for an extreme g eomagnetic storm? E3C id 165: 100.0% of 3 — What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? E3C id 166: 100.0% of 3 — What does the 304A solar parameter measure? E3C id 167: 100.0% of 3 — What does VOACAP software model? E3C id 168: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum E4A E4A id 169: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? E4A id 170: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? E4A id 171: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products g E4A id 172: 100.0% of 6 — How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed ? E4A id 173: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using a prescal er with a frequency counter ? E4A id 174: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform ? E4A id 175: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? E4A id 176: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to measure SWR? E4A id 177: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? E4A id 178: 0.0% of 3 — Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? E4A id 179: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be measured with an anten na analyzer? E4B E4B id 180: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? E4B id 181: 100.0% of 3 — What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? E4B id 182: 100.0% of 3 — Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? E4B id 183: 100.0% of 6 — Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? E4B id 184: 100.0% of 3 — What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? E4B id 185: 100.0% of 3 — How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmit ter and a termi E4B id 186: 100.0% of 3 — What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? E4B id 187: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series -tuned circuit? E4B id 188: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured by a two -port vector network analyzer? E4B id 189: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? E4B id 190: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? E4C E4C id 191: 100.0% of 6 — What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscill ator? E4C id 192: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out -ofband signals? E4C id 193: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? E4C id 194: 100.0% of 3 — What is the noise figure of a receiver? E4C id 195: 100.0% of 3 — What does a receiver noise floor of - 174 dBm represent? E4C id 196: 100.0% of 3 — How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1 ,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? E4C id 197: 100.0% of 3 — What does the MDS of a receiver represent? E4C id 198: 100.0% of 3 — An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? E4C id 199: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications r E4C id 200: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? E4C id 201: 100.0% of 3 — Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal- E4C id 202: 100.0% of 3 — How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance? E4C id 203: 100.0% of 3 — What is reciprocal mixing? E4C id 204: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? E4D E4D id 205: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? E4D id 206: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? E4D id 207: 100.0% of 3 — What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity ? E4D id 208: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby tran E4D id 209: 0.0% of 3 — What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a ne E4D id 210: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? E4D id 211: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? E4D id 212: 100.0% of 3 — What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? E4D id 213: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? E4D id 214: 100.0% of 6 — What does a third -order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? E4D id 215: 100.0% of 3 — Why are odd -order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other product E4D id 216: 100.0% of 3 — What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a ca E4D id 217: 100.0% of 3 — What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive a E4D id 218: 33.3% of 3 — What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of - 100 dBm represent? E4E E4E id 219: 100.0% of 3 — What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW sign E4E id 220: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction ? E4E id 221: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of noise are removed by a no ise blanker? E4E id 222: 100.0% of 3 — How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? E4E id 223: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? E4E id 224: 100.0% of 3 — What type of electrical interference can be caus ed by computer network equipment ? E4E id 225: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? E4E id 226: 100.0% of 3 — What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? E4E id 227: 100.0% of 3 — What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? E4E id 228: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference ? E4E id 229: 100.0% of 3 — What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combin ing to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands E4E id 230: 100.0% of 3 — What cause s interference received as a series of carriers at re gular intervals across a wide frequency range? E4E id 231: 0.0% of 3 — Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? E4E id 232: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ? E5A E5A id 233: 100.0% of 3 — What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire E5A id 234: 100.0% of 3 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 40 picofarads? E5A id 235: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 236: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 237: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance -matching circuit? E5A id 238: 100.0% of 6 — What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? E5A id 239: 100.0% of 3 — What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? E5A id 240: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance E5A id 241: 66.7% of 3 — How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? E5A id 242: 100.0% of 6 — What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries , and C is 10 picofarads? E5A id 243: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? E5A id 244: 100.0% of 3 — What is the half- power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? E5A id 245: 100.0% of 3 — What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? E5B E5B id 246: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage E5B id 247: 100.0% of 6 — What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? E5B id 248: 100.0% of 3 — How is impe dance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? E5B id 249: 0.0% of 3 — What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in paralle E5B id 250: 100.0% of 6 — What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance ? E5B id 251: 100.0% of 3 — What is susceptance? E5B id 252: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage acros s and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is E5B id 253: 0.0% of 3 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is E5B id 254: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? E5B id 255: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? E5B id 256: 83.3% of 6 — What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 1 E5B id 257: 100.0% of 3 — What is admittance? E5C E5C id 258: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? E5C id 259: 100.0% of 6 — How are impedances described in polar coordinates? E5C id 260: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? E5C id 261: 100.0% of 3 — What type of Y- axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? E5C id 262: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? E5C id 263: 100.0% of 3 — What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? E5C id 264: 100.0% of 3 — Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coo rdinates? E5C id 265: 100.0% of 3 — What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive , and/or c E5C id 266: 100.0% of 3 — When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? E5C id 267: 0.0% of 3 — Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-p E5C id 268: 100.0% of 3 — Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18- E5C id 269: 50.0% of 6 — Which point on Figure E5 -1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 -ohm resistor and a 19 E5D E5D id 270: 100.0% of 3 — What is the result of conductor skin effect? E5D id 271: 100.0% of 6 — Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? E5D id 272: 100.0% of 3 — What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? E5D id 273: 100.0% of 3 — Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? E5D id 274: 100.0% of 3 — What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? E5D id 275: 100.0% of 6 — What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self -resonance? E5D id 276: 0.0% of 3 — What combines to create the self -resonance of a component? E5D id 277: 0.0% of 3 — What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? E5D id 278: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? E5D id 279: 0.0% of 3 — As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length? E5D id 280: 0.0% of 3 — How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 -ohm resistor in series with a 100 -ohm inductive react E5D id 281: 100.0% of 6 — What is reactive power? E6A E6A id 282: 100.0% of 6 — In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? E6A id 283: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? E6A id 284: 100.0% of 3 — Why does a PN -junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? E6A id 285: 100.0% of 3 — What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crysta l structure? E6A id 286: 100.0% of 3 — How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field -effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? E6A id 287: 100.0% of 3 — What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? E6A id 288: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? E6A id 289: 100.0% of 3 — What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded -base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreas E6A id 290: 100.0% of 3 — What is a depletion -mode field -effect transistor (FET) ? E6A id 291: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for an N -channel dual -gate MOSFET? E6A id 292: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET? E6A id 293: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes betwe en a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? E6B E6B id 294: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? E6B id 295: 100.0% of 6 — Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power suppl E6B id 296: 100.0% of 3 — What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop ? E6B id 297: 100.0% of 6 — What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage -controlled capacitor? E6B id 298: 0.0% of 3 — What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? E6B id 299: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? E6B id 300: 100.0% of 3 — What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? E6B id 301: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? E6B id 302: 100.0% of 6 — What is a common use for point -contact diodes? E6B id 303: 0.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? E6B id 304: 100.0% of 3 — What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN d iode? E6C E6C id 305: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? E6C id 306: 100.0% of 3 — What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage ? E6C id 307: 100.0% of 3 — What is tri- state logic? E6C id 308: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? E6C id 309: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? E6C id 310: 100.0% of 3 — Why do CMOS digital inte grated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? E6C id 311: 100.0% of 3 — What best describes a pull -up or pull -down resistor? E6C id 312: 0.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? E6C id 313: 100.0% of 6 — What is used to design the configuration of a f ield-programmable gate array (FPGA)? E6C id 314: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? E6C id 315: 100.0% of 6 — In Figure E6 -3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation ( inversion )? E6D E6D id 316: 100.0% of 3 — What is piezoelectricity? E6D id 317: 100.0% of 6 — What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? E6D id 318: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? E6D id 319: 100.0% of 3 — Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? E6D id 320: 100.0% of 3 — How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core ? E6D id 321: 100.0% of 3 — What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? E6D id 322: 0.0% of 3 — What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? E6D id 323: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? E6D id 324: 100.0% of 3 — What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the inpu t and output terminals of a transistor H E6D id 325: 100.0% of 3 — What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? E6D id 326: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? E6D id 327: 100.0% of 3 — What causes inductor saturation? E6E E6E id 328: 100.0% of 3 — Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequ encies? E6E id 329: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following device packages is a through -hole type? E6E id 330: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? E6E id 331: 100.0% of 3 — Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? E6E id 332: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low -noise UHF preamplifier? E6E id 333: 100.0% of 6 — What characteristics of MMIC s make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? E6E id 334: 100.0% of 3 — What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMI Cs? E6E id 335: 0.0% of 6 — How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? E6E id 336: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? E6E id 337: 100.0% of 3 — What advantage does surface -mount technology offer at RF compared to using through -hole components? E6E id 338: 100.0% of 3 — What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? E6E id 339: 100.0% of 6 — Why are DIP through -hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? E6F E6F id 340: 0.0% of 3 — What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 341: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? E6F id 342: 100.0% of 3 — What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? E6F id 343: 100.0% of 3 — What is the photovoltaic effect? E6F id 344: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? E6F id 345: 100.0% of 6 — Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? E6F id 346: 100.0% of 6 — What is a solid -state relay? E6F id 347: 100.0% of 6 — Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid -state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits ? E6F id 348: 100.0% of 3 — What is the efficiency o f a photovoltaic cell? E6F id 349: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common material used in power- generating photovoltaic cells ? E6F id 350: 0.0% of 3 — What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? E7A E7A id 351: 100.0% of 3 — Which circuit is bistable? E7A id 352: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a decade counter? E7A id 353: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? E7A id 354: 100.0% of 3 — How many flip -flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16 ? E7A id 355: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following circuit s continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? E7A id 356: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? E7A id 357: 100.0% of 3 — What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? E7A id 358: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation does an OR gate perform? E7A id 359: 100.0% of 6 — What logical operation is performed by a two -input exclusive NOR gate? E7A id 360: 100.0% of 6 — What is a truth table? E7A id 361: 100.0% of 3 — What does “positive logic ” mean in reference to logic devices? E7B E7B id 362: 100.0% of 3 — For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push -pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? E7B id 363: 100.0% of 6 — What is a Class D amplifier? E7B id 364: 100.0% of 3 — What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier ? E7B id 365: 100.0% of 3 — What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? E7B id 366: 100.0% of 6 — What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? E7B id 367: 100.0% of 6 — What is a characteristic of a grounded -grid amplifier? E7B id 368: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single -sideband phone signal? E7B id 369: 100.0% of 3 — Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? E7B id 370: 100.0% of 3 — What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? E7B id 371: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? E7B id 372: 100.0% of 3 — In Figure E7 -1, what is the purpose of R3? E7B id 373: 100.0% of 3 — What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7 -1? E7C E7C id 374: 100.0% of 6 — How are the capacitors and inductors of a low -pass filter Pi- network arranged between the netwo rk’s input and output? E7C id 375: 0.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? E7C id 376: 0.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ? E7C id 377: 100.0% of 3 — How does an impedance -matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? E7C id 378: 100.0% of 3 — Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? E7C id 379: 100.0% of 6 — What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? E7C id 380: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes a P i-L network? E7C id 381: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is most frequently used as a band -pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? E7C id 382: 33.3% of 3 — What is a crystal lattice filter? E7C id 383: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following filters is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer? E7C id 384: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channel s? E7D E7D id 385: 100.0% of 3 — How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? E7D id 386: 100.0% of 3 — How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? E7D id 387: 100.0% of 3 — What device is used as a stable voltage reference? E7D id 388: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a three -terminal voltage regulator? E7D id 389: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? E7D id 390: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 391: 0.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 392: 100.0% of 3 — What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7 -2? E7D id 393: 100.0% of 3 — How is battery operating time calculated? E7D id 394: 100.0% of 3 — Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and l ighter than a n equivalent linear power supply? E7D id 395: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? E7D id 396: 100.0% of 3 — What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? E7D id 397: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? E7D id 398: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of connecting equal -value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? E7D id 399: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a step -start circuit in a high -voltage power supply? E7E E7E id 400: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals ? E7E id 401: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a reactance modulator? E7E id 402: 100.0% of 6 — What is a frequency discriminator? E7E id 403: 100.0% of 3 — What is one way to produce a single -sideband phone signal? E7E id 404: 100.0% of 3 — What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? E7E id 405: 0.0% of 6 — Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? E7E id 406: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? E7E id 407: 100.0% of 6 — What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? E7E id 408: 100.0% of 3 — What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high ? E7E id 409: 100.0% of 3 — How does a diode envelope detector function? E7E id 410: 100.0% of 3 — Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? E7F E7F id 411: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? E7F id 412: 100.0% of 3 — What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? E7F id 413: 100.0% of 3 — What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? E7F id 414: 100.0% of 3 — Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? E7F id 415: 100.0% of 6 — How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? E7F id 416: 100.0% of 3 — What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? E7F id 417: 100.0% of 3 — What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? E7F id 418: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of decimation? E7F id 419: 100.0% of 3 — Why is an anti-aliasing filter require d in a decimator? E7F id 420: 100.0% of 3 — What aspect of receiver analog -to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct -sampling sof E7F id 421: 100.0% of 3 — What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct -sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmosph E7F id 422: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters ? E7F id 423: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? E7F id 424: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? E7G E7G id 425: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical output impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 426: 100.0% of 3 — What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7 -3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? E7G id 427: 100.0% of 3 — What is the typical input impedance of an op -amp? E7G id 428: 100.0% of 3 — What is meant by the term “op -amp input offset voltage”? E7G id 429: 100.0% of 6 — How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op -amp audio filter? E7G id 430: 100.0% of 3 — What is the gain -bandwidth of an operational amplifier? E7G id 431: 100.0% of 6 — What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? E7G id 432: 33.3% of 3 — How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? E7G id 433: 100.0% of 6 — What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7 -3 if R1 is 1 ,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 v E7G id 434: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 1 ,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? E7G id 435: 100.0% of 3 — What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7 -3 when R1 is 3 ,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? E7G id 436: 100.0% of 3 — What is an operational amplifier? E7H E7H id 437: 100.0% of 3 — What are three c ommon oscillator circuits? E7H id 438: 100.0% of 3 — What is a microphonic? E7H id 439: 100.0% of 3 — What is a phase -locked loop? E7H id 440: 100.0% of 3 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? E7H id 441: 100.0% of 6 — How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? E7H id 442: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these functions can be performed by a phase -locked loop? E7H id 443: 100.0% of 3 — How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? E7H id 444: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? E7H id 445: 100.0% of 6 — What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital- to-analog converter, and a l E7H id 446: 100.0% of 3 — What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? E7H id 447: 100.0% of 3 — What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? E7H id 448: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following ensure s that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacture E7H id 449: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmis E8A E8A id 450: 100.0% of 6 — What technique shows that a square wave i s made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? E8A id 451: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a type of analog -to-digital conversion? E8A id 452: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? E8A id 453: 100.0% of 3 — What is “dither” with respect to analog -to-digital converters? E8A id 454: 100.0% of 3 — What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true- RMS calculating meter? E8A id 455: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate ratio of PEP -to-average power in an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 456: 100.0% of 6 — What determines the PEP -to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single -sideband phone signal? E8A id 457: 100.0% of 3 — Why are direct or flash conversion analog -to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? E8A id 458: 100.0% of 6 — How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog- to-digital converter with 8 -bit resolution? E8A id 459: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of a low -pass filter used at the output of a digital- to-analog converter? E8A id 460: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog -to-digital converter? E8B E8B id 461: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation in dex of an FM signal? E8B id 462: 100.0% of 3 — How does the modulation index of a phase -modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? E8B id 463: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the ca E8B id 464: 100.0% of 3 — What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the high E8B id 465: 100.0% of 6 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest E8B id 466: 100.0% of 3 — What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highe E8B id 467: 100.0% of 6 — Orthogonal frequency -division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? E8B id 468: 100.0% of 3 — What describes orthogonal frequency -division multiplexin g (OFDM) ? E8B id 469: 100.0% of 6 — What is deviation ratio? E8B id 470: 100.0% of 3 — What is frequency division mult iplexing (FDM) ? E8B id 471: 100.0% of 6 — What is digital time division multiplexing? E8C E8C id 472: 100.0% of 3 — What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? E8C id 473: 100.0% of 3 — What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? E8C id 474: 0.0% of 3 — Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? E8C id 475: 100.0% of 3 — What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? E8C id 476: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13 -WPM International Morse Code transmission? E8C id 477: 100.0% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal ? E8C id 478: 66.7% of 3 — What is the bandwidth of a 4 ,800 -Hz fre quency shift, 9 ,600 -baud ASCII FM transmission? E8C id 479: 100.0% of 3 — How does ARQ accomplish error correction? E8C id 480: 100.0% of 3 — Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? E8C id 481: 100.0% of 3 — How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? E8C id 482: 100.0% of 3 — What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? E8C id 483: 100.0% of 3 — What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? E8C id 484: 100.0% of 3 — What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? E8C id 485: 100.0% of 3 — What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? E8C id 486: 0.0% of 3 — What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? E8D E8D id 487: 100.0% of 3 — Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? E8D id 488: 100.0% of 3 — What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high -speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? E8D id 489: 100.0% of 3 — Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? E8D id 490: 100.0% of 6 — What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? E8D id 491: 100.0% of 6 — What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? E8D id 492: 100.0% of 3 — What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? E8D id 493: 100.0% of 3 — What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? E8D id 494: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? E8D id 495: 100.0% of 6 — What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? E8D id 496: 100.0% of 6 — What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? E8D id 497: 100.0% of 3 — What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? E9A E9A id 498: 100.0% of 3 — What is an isotropic radiator? E9A id 499: 33.3% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line E9A id 500: 100.0% of 3 — What term describ ing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? E9A id 501: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? E9A id 502: 100.0% of 6 — What does the term “ground g ain” mean? E9A id 503: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line E9A id 504: 0.0% of 3 — What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 d E9A id 505: 100.0% of 3 — Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? E9A id 506: 100.0% of 6 — What is antenna efficiency? E9A id 507: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground -mounted quarter -wave vertical antenna? E9A id 508: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground -mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? E9A id 509: 100.0% of 6 — How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half- wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator E9B E9B id 510: 0.0% of 3 — What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 511: 0.0% of 3 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 512: 0.0% of 6 — What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1? E9B id 513: 66.7% of 6 — What is the front- to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 514: 0.0% of 6 — What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 515: 100.0% of 3 — What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -2? E9B id 516: 100.0% of 6 — What is the difference in radiated power between a lossles s antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the s E9B id 517: 100.0% of 3 — What is the far field of an antenna? E9B id 518: 100.0% of 3 — What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? E9B id 519: 100.0% of 3 — What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? E9B id 520: 100.0% of 3 — What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half -wavelen E9C E9C id 521: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 1 E9C id 522: 100.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 9 E9C id 523: 0.0% of 3 — What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4 -wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed i E9C id 524: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? E9C id 525: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of feeding an off -center -fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoi E9C id 526: 100.0% of 3 — What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long -wire antenna? E9C id 527: 100.0% of 6 — What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two -wire half- wave folded dipole antenna? E9C id 528: 100.0% of 3 — What is a folded dipole antenna? E9C id 529: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? E9C id 530: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? E9C id 531: 100.0% of 3 — How is t he far -field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versu E9C id 532: 66.7% of 3 — Which of the following describes an e xtended double Zepp antenna? E9C id 533: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? E9C id 534: 100.0% of 3 — How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same ant E9D E9D id 602: 100.0% of 3 — How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? E9D id 535: 100.0% of 6 — How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? E9D id 536: 66.7% of 3 — What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip ? E9D id 537: 100.0% of 3 — Why should antenna loading coil s have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? E9D id 538: 100.0% of 3 — Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? E9D id 539: 100.0% of 3 — What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? E9D id 540: 100.0% of 3 — What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? E9D id 541: 100.0% of 3 — What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? E9D id 542: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? E9D id 543: 100.0% of 6 — How does radiation resistance of a base -fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? E9D id 544: 50.0% of 6 — Why do most two -element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? E9D id 545: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? E9E E9E id 546: 33.3% of 6 — Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? E9E id 547: 100.0% of 3 — What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna a E9E id 548: 100.0% of 6 — What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the fe E9E id 549: 100.0% of 6 — What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? E9E id 550: 0.0% of 3 — What Yagi driven element feed point imped ance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? E9E id 551: 100.0% of 3 — Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter- wave Q section for matching a E9E id 552: 100.0% of 3 — What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? E9E id 553: 100.0% of 6 — What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? E9E id 554: 0.0% of 6 — Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? E9E id 555: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines ? E9F E9F id 556: 100.0% of 3 — What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? E9F id 557: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a tran smission line? E9F id 558: 100.0% of 3 — Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length ? E9F id 559: 50.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 560: 100.0% of 3 — What is microstrip? E9F id 561: 100.0% of 3 — What is the approximate physical length of an air- insulated, parallel cond uctor transmission line that is electrically E9F id 562: 100.0% of 6 — How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric ? E9F id 563: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial ca E9F id 564: 100.0% of 6 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 565: 100.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far e E9F id 566: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/8 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9F id 567: 0.0% of 3 — What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? E9G E9G id 568: 100.0% of 3 — Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? E9G id 569: 100.0% of 3 — What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? E9G id 570: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? E9G id 571: 100.0% of 6 — What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? E9G id 572: 100.0% of 6 — Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? E9G id 573: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactanc e arcs termi E9G id 574: 100.0% of 3 — On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9 -3, what is the only straight line shown? E9G id 575: 100.0% of 3 — How is a Smith chart normalized ? E9G id 576: 100.0% of 3 — What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks E9G id 577: 16.7% of 6 — What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? E9G id 578: 100.0% of 3 — In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? E9H E9H id 579: 100.0% of 3 — When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good pe E9H id 580: 100.0% of 3 — Which is generally true f or 160 - and 80 -meter receiving antennas? E9H id 581: 0.0% of 6 — What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)? E9H id 582: 100.0% of 3 — What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small- loop direction -finding antenna? E9H id 583: 100.0% of 3 — What challenge is presented by a small wire -loop antenna for direction finding? E9H id 584: 83.3% of 6 — What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? E9H id 585: 100.0% of 3 — What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? E9H id 586: 100.0% of 6 — What is the function of a sense antenna? E9H id 587: 100.0% of 6 — What type of radiation pattern is created by a single -turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna ? E9H id 588: 100.0% of 3 — How can the output voltage of a multiple -turn receiving loop antenna be increased? E9H id 589: 100.0% of 3 — What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction -finding antennas ?

Accuracy by subelement

subelementclaude-opus-4-8claude-sonnet-4-6claude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:highclaude-haiku-4-5-20251001claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9
E0 100.0% (5/5) 96.4% (53/55) 100.0% (10/10) 73.3% (33/45) 75.6% (34/45) 75.6% (34/45) 82.2% (37/45)
E1 100.0% (30/30) 92.7% (306/330) 88.3% (53/60) 69.6% (188/270) 63.0% (170/270) 59.3% (160/270) 68.9% (186/270)
E2 80.0% (20/25) 98.5% (271/275) 90.0% (45/50) 86.2% (194/225) 88.4% (199/225) 88.4% (199/225) 87.1% (196/225)
E3 100.0% (15/15) 97.6% (161/165) 90.0% (27/30) 93.3% (126/135) 93.3% (126/135) 94.8% (128/135) 93.3% (126/135)
E4 80.0% (20/25) 90.9% (250/275) 74.0% (37/50) 92.0% (207/225) 92.9% (209/225) 93.3% (210/225) 92.4% (208/225)
E5 100.0% (20/20) 96.4% (212/220) 90.0% (36/40) 82.8% (149/180) 83.9% (151/180) 85.0% (153/180) 83.9% (151/180)
E6 100.0% (30/30) 96.7% (319/330) 90.0% (54/60) 87.4% (236/270) 88.1% (238/270) 86.7% (234/270) 86.7% (234/270)
E7 100.0% (40/40) 99.3% (437/440) 90.0% (72/80) 93.3% (336/360) 92.8% (334/360) 93.3% (336/360) 93.1% (335/360)
E8 100.0% (20/20) 100.0% (220/220) 90.0% (36/40) 95.6% (172/180) 95.0% (171/180) 98.3% (177/180) 96.1% (173/180)
E9 95.0% (38/40) 97.0% (427/440) 90.0% (72/80) 78.3% (282/360) 79.4% (286/360) 78.9% (284/360) 80.6% (290/360)

Questions missed

All configurations pooled, lowest accuracy first. Given-answer counts show whether misses agree on a wrong choice (a knowledge gap) or scatter (guessing).

idgroupaccnkeygivenquestion
34E1C0.0%69DA×69
In what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted?
42E1D0.0%57DB×54, A×3
Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
292E6A0.0%15AB×11, C×4
In Figure E6 -1, which is the schematic symbol for a P -channel junction FET?
277E5D0.0%15DB×15
What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?
391E7D0.0%15AB×12, C×3
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2?
279E5D0.0%15DC×15
As a conductor ’s diameter increases , what is the effect on its electrical length?
231E4E0.0%15CA×10, B×5
Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?
67E1F0.0%15BC×12, A×3
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
209E4D0.0%15AB×15
What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation -product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
232E4E0.0%15DB×15
What is the purpose of a single point ground panel ?
27E1C0.0%12BA×12
Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled ?
303E6B6.7%30BC×28, B×2
In Figure E6 -2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?
276E5D6.7%15BC×14, B×1
What combines to create the self -resonance of a component?
55E1E13.3%15AD×13, A×2
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
322E6D13.3%15DC×13, D×2
What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding?
511E9B13.3%15DC×10, B×3, D×2
What is the front- to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1?
512E9B16.7%30DB×24, D×5, A×1
What is the front- to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9 -1?
54E1E16.7%30CD×25, C×5
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
3E1A16.7%12CB×9, C×2, D×1
What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20 -meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?
127E2E20.0%30AD×24, A×6
What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
559E9F20.0%30BA×23, B×6, C×1
What impedance does a 1/2 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
581E9H20.0%30DB×15, C×9, D×6
What is r eceiving directivity factor (RDF)?
405E7E20.0%30AB×24, A×6
Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?
554E9E20.0%30CB×24, C×6
Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?
63E1F20.0%30AD×24, A×6
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
335E6E20.0%30CD×24, C×6
How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?
376E7C20.0%30AD×24, A×6
What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi -network to create a Pi -L-network ?
162E3C20.0%30AC×24, A×6
How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?
323E6D20.0%30BC×24, B×6
Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?
375E7C20.0%15BA×12, B×3
What is the frequency response of a T -network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?
114E2D20.0%15AB×12, A×3
What type of modulation is used by JT65?
298E6B20.0%15DC×12, D×3
What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?
340E6F20.0%15CB×12, C×3
What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
567E9F20.0%15DC×12, D×3
What impedance does a 1/4 -wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?
14E1B20.0%15AD×9, B×3, A×3
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
249E5B20.0%15DC×12, D×3
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 -microfarad capacitors and two 1 -megohm resistors, all in parallel?
390E7D20.0%15CD×12, C×3
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7 -2?
89E2B20.0%15AC×12, A×3
What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast -scan TV operations on the 70centimeter band?
204E4C20.0%15CD×12, C×3
What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?
267E5C20.0%15BC×12, B×3
Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Run log

Rows flagged red had a non-JSON parse, fewer answers than questions, a stop reason other than end_turn, or failed outright — check these before trusting their scores.

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trajectoryexamconfigurationservedscoreansweredparsestopin tokout tokfinished
exam_jobs_FirstTest_opus_r2FirstTestclaude-opus-4-84850/50jsonend_turn88327822026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_opus_r3FirstTestclaude-opus-4-84750/50jsonend_turn88327802026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_opus_r4FirstTestclaude-opus-4-84850/50jsonend_turn88327552026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_opus_r5FirstTestclaude-opus-4-84850/50jsonend_turn88327552026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r1FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722817842026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r10FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722818042026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r2FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722818912026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r3FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722817832026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r5FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722816262026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r6FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722818632026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r7FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-65050/50jsonend_turn722819332026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r8FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722823232026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r9FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722818072026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r1FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn722888562026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r2FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn722882622026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r4FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn7228120802026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r5FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn7228113112026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r8FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high22/50regexmax_tokens7228160002026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r9FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4850/50jsonend_turn722867452026-08-24T14:49:57
exam_jobs_FirstTest_opus_r1FirstTestclaude-opus-4-84750/50jsonend_turn88327552026-08-24T14:49:58
exam_jobs_FirstTest_r4FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn722817842026-08-24T14:49:58
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r10FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn7228106692026-08-24T14:49:58
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r3FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn7228107272026-08-24T14:49:58
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r6FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn722871672026-08-24T14:49:58
exam_jobs_FirstTest_think_r7FirstTestclaude-sonnet-4-6 · thinking:high4950/50jsonend_turn722882102026-08-24T14:49:58
cover_jobs_Test01_haiku_r1Test01claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88677112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test01_haiku_r2Test01claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88677112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test01_haiku_r3Test01claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88677112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test01_r1Test01claude-sonnet-4-65050/50jsonend_turn723319632026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test01_r2Test01claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn723319122026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test01_r3Test01claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn723319292026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_haiku_r1Test02claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91695112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_haiku_r2Test02claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91697112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_haiku_r3Test02claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91697112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_r1Test02claude-sonnet-4-64750/50jsonend_turn753520692026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_r2Test02claude-sonnet-4-64750/50jsonend_turn753519932026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test02_r3Test02claude-sonnet-4-64650/50jsonend_turn753520452026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_haiku_r1Test03claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88367112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_haiku_r2Test03claude-haiku-4-5-202510014050/50jsonend_turn88367112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_haiku_r3Test03claude-haiku-4-5-202510014050/50jsonend_turn88367112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_r1Test03claude-sonnet-4-65050/50jsonend_turn720218422026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_r2Test03claude-sonnet-4-65050/50jsonend_turn720218192026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test03_r3Test03claude-sonnet-4-65050/50jsonend_turn720218352026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_haiku_r1Test04claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn85457112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_haiku_r2Test04claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85457112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_haiku_r3Test04claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn85457112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_r1Test04claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn691120172026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_r2Test04claude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn691118662026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test04_r3Test04claude-sonnet-4-64950/50jsonend_turn691119312026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_haiku_r1Test05claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87227112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_haiku_r2Test05claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87227112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_haiku_r3Test05claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87227112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_r1Test05claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn708816432026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_r2Test05claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn708816352026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test05_r3Test05claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn708816862026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_haiku_r1Test06claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89187112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_haiku_r2Test06claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn89187112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_haiku_r3Test06claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89187112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_r1Test06claude-sonnet-4-64750/50jsonend_turn728422572026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_r2Test06claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn728421682026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test06_r3Test06claude-sonnet-4-64850/50jsonend_turn728420902026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test07_haiku_r1Test07claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88067112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test07_haiku_r2Test07claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88067112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test07_haiku_r3Test07claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88067112026-08-24T16:00:53
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cover_jobs_Test08_haiku_r1Test08claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn86487112026-08-24T16:00:53
cover_jobs_Test08_haiku_r2Test08claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86487112026-08-24T16:00:53
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first34_jobs_Test01_first34_r1Test01_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88655112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test01_first34_r3Test01_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88657112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test02_first34_r1Test02_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn91727112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test02_first34_r2Test02_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91727112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test02_first34_r3Test02_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn91727112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test03_first34_r2Test03_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88337112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test04_first34_r1Test04_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85357112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test04_first34_r2Test04_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85357112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test04_first34_r3Test04_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn85357112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test05_first34_r1Test05_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014050/50jsonend_turn86835612026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test05_first34_r2Test05_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn86837112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test05_first34_r3Test05_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn86837112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test06_first34_r1Test06_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88777112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test06_first34_r2Test06_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88777112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test06_first34_r3Test06_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88777112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test08_first34_r1Test08_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn85957112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test09_first34_r1Test09_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88137112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test09_first34_r2Test09_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88137112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test09_first34_r3Test09_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88137112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test10_first34_r1Test10_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88987112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test10_first34_r2Test10_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88987112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test11_first34_r1Test11_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014650/50jsonend_turn87007112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test11_first34_r3Test11_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn87007112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test12_first34_r1Test12_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn90467112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test12_first34_r2Test12_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn90467112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test12_first34_r3Test12_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn90467112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test13_first34_r1Test13_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87817112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test13_first34_r2Test13_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87817112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test13_first34_r3Test13_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn87817112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test14_first34_r1Test14_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510013950/50jsonend_turn89005112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test14_first34_r2Test14_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn89007112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test14_first34_r3Test14_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn89007112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test15_first34_r1Test15_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87477112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test15_first34_r3Test15_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87477112026-08-25T14:21:04
first34_jobs_Test01_first34_r2Test01_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88657112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test03_first34_r1Test03_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88337112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test03_first34_r3Test03_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88337112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test07_first34_r1Test07_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87947112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test07_first34_r2Test07_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn87947112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test07_first34_r3Test07_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87947112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test08_first34_r2Test08_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn85957112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test08_first34_r3Test08_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn85957112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test10_first34_r3Test10_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88987112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test11_first34_r2Test11_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014650/50jsonend_turn87007112026-08-25T14:21:05
first34_jobs_Test15_first34_r2Test15_first34claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first34claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87477112026-08-25T14:21:05
first42_jobs_Test01_first42_r1Test01_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88647112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test01_first42_r2Test01_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88647112026-08-25T20:22:36
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first42_jobs_Test02_first42_r1Test02_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91587112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test02_first42_r2Test02_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91587112026-08-25T20:22:36
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first42_jobs_Test03_first42_r1Test03_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014050/50jsonend_turn88467112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test03_first42_r2Test03_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88467112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test03_first42_r3Test03_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88467112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test04_first42_r1Test04_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn85025612026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test04_first42_r2Test04_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85027112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test04_first42_r3Test04_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85027112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test05_first42_r1Test05_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87045612026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test05_first42_r2Test05_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87047112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test05_first42_r3Test05_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87047112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test06_first42_r1Test06_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test06_first42_r2Test06_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test06_first42_r3Test06_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test07_first42_r1Test07_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88277112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test07_first42_r2Test07_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88277112026-08-25T20:22:36
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first42_jobs_Test08_first42_r1Test08_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86557112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test08_first42_r2Test08_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014650/50jsonend_turn86557112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test08_first42_r3Test08_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86557112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test09_first42_r1Test09_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88275612026-08-25T20:22:36
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first42_jobs_Test10_first42_r1Test10_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test10_first42_r2Test10_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test10_first42_r3Test10_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89117112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test11_first42_r1Test11_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test11_first42_r2Test11_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test11_first42_r3Test11_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn86867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test12_first42_r1Test12_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91087112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test12_first42_r2Test12_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91087112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test12_first42_r3Test12_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn91087112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test13_first42_r1Test13_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87807112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test13_first42_r2Test13_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87807112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test13_first42_r3Test13_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn87807112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test14_first42_r1Test14_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test14_first42_r2Test14_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test14_first42_r3Test14_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014050/50jsonend_turn88867112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test15_first42_r1Test15_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87607112026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test15_first42_r2Test15_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87605612026-08-25T20:22:36
first42_jobs_Test15_first42_r3Test15_first42claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first42claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87607112026-08-25T20:22:36
first9_jobs_Test01_first9_r1Test01_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn88567112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test01_first9_r2Test01_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn88567112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test01_first9_r3Test01_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88567112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test02_first9_r1Test02_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91767112026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test02_first9_r3Test02_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91767112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test03_first9_r1Test03_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88095612026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test03_first9_r2Test03_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn88097112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test03_first9_r3Test03_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn88097112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test04_first9_r1Test04_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn85667112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test04_first9_r2Test04_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn85667112026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test05_first9_r1Test05_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87465612026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test05_first9_r3Test05_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87465112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test06_first9_r1Test06_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn89077112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test06_first9_r2Test06_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89077112026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test07_first9_r1Test07_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88267112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test07_first9_r2Test07_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn88267112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test07_first9_r3Test07_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn88267112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test08_first9_r1Test08_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn86557112026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test08_first9_r3Test08_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn86557112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test09_first9_r1Test09_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88055612026-08-25T20:28:49
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first9_jobs_Test10_first9_r1Test10_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89087112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test10_first9_r2Test10_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn89087112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test10_first9_r3Test10_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn89087112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test11_first9_r1Test11_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014650/50jsonend_turn87017112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test11_first9_r2Test11_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014550/50jsonend_turn87017112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test11_first9_r3Test11_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014450/50jsonend_turn87017112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test12_first9_r1Test12_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn91105612026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test12_first9_r2Test12_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91107112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test12_first9_r3Test12_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn91107112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test13_first9_r1Test13_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014650/50jsonend_turn87907112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test13_first9_r2Test13_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87907112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test13_first9_r3Test13_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn87907112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test14_first9_r1Test14_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88707112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test14_first9_r2Test14_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88707112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test14_first9_r3Test14_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014350/50jsonend_turn88707112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test15_first9_r1Test15_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014250/50jsonend_turn87717112026-08-25T20:28:49
first9_jobs_Test15_first9_r2Test15_first9claude-haiku-4-5-20251001 · first9claude-haiku-4-5-202510014150/50jsonend_turn87715612026-08-25T20:28:49
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